RC 15.7

When A. Philip Randolph assumed the leadership of the
Brotherhood of Sleeping Car Porters, he began a ten-year
battle to win recognition from the Pullman Company, the
largest private employer of Black people in the United
(5) States and the company that controlled the railroad
industry's sleeping car and parlor service. In 1935 the
Brotherhood became the first Black union recognized by a
major corporation. Randolph's efforts in the battle helped
transform the attitude of Black workers toward unions and
(10) toward themselves as an identifiable group; eventually,
Randolph helped to weaken organized labor's antagonism
toward Black workers.
In the Pullman contest Randolph faced formidable
obstacles. The first was Black workers' understandable
( 15) skepticism toward unions, which had historically barred
Black workers from membership. An additional obstacle
was the union that Pullman itself had formed, which
weakened support among Black workers for an
independent entity.
(20) The Brotherhood possessed a number of advantages,
however, including Randolph's own tactical abilities. In
1928 he took the bold step of threatening a strike against
Pullman. Such a threat, on a national scale, under Black
leadership, helped replace the stereotype of the Black
(25)worker as servant with the image of the Black worker as
wage earner. In addition, the porters' very isolation aided
the Brotherhood. Porters were scattered throughout the
country, sleeping in dormitories in Black communities;
their segregated life protected the union's internal
(30) communications from interception. That the porters were a
homogeneous group working for a single employer with
single labor policy, thus sharing the same grievances from
city to city, also strengthened the Brotherhood and encouraged
racial identity and solidarity as well. But it was only
(35) in the early 1930's that federal legislation prohibiting a
248
company from maintaining its own unions with company
money eventually allowed the Brotherhood to become
recognized as the porters' representative.
Not content with this triumph, Randolph brought the
(40)Brotherhood into the American Federation of Labor, where
it became the equal of the Federation's 105 other unions.
He reasoned that as a member union, the Brotherhood
would be in a better position to exert pressure on member
unions that practiced race restrictions. Such restrictions
were eventually found unconstitutional in 1944.

107. According to the passage, by 1935 the skepticism of
Black workers toward unions was
(A) unchanged except among Black employees of
railroad-related industries.
(B) reinforced by the actions of the Pullman Company's
union
(C) mitigated by the efforts of Randolph
(D) weakened by the opening up of many unions to
Black workers.
(E) largely alleviated because of the policies of the
American Federation of Labor.

108. In using the word "understandable" (line 14), the
author most clearly conveys
(A) sympathy with attempts by the Brotherhood
between 1925 and 1935 to establish an independent
union.
(B) concern that the obstacles faced by Randolph
between 1925 and 1935 were indeed formidable
(C) ambivalence about the significance of unions to
most Black workers in the 1920's.
(D) appreciation of the attitude of many Black workers
in the 1920's toward unions.
(E) regret at the historical attitude of unions toward
Black workers.


109. The passage suggests which of the following about the
response of porters to the Pullman Company's own
union?
(A) Few porters ever joined this union.
(B) Some porters supported this union before 1935.
(C) Porters, more than other Pullman employees,
enthusiastically supported this union.
(D) The porters' response was most positive after 1935.
(E) The porters' response was unaffected by the general
skepticism of Black workers concerning unions

.
110. The passage suggests that if the grievances of porters in
one part of the United States had been different from
those of porters in another part of the country, which of
the following would have been the case?
(A) It would have been more difficult for the Pullman
Company to have had a single labor policy.
(B) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to control its channels of
communication.
(C) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to uild its membership.
(D) It would have been easier for the Pullman
Company's union to attract membership.
(E) It would have been easier for the Brotherhood to
threaten strikes.


111. The passage suggests that in the 1920's a company in
the United States was able to
(A) use its own funds to set up a union
(B) require its employees to join the company's own
union
(C) develop a single labor policy for all its employees
with little employee dissent.
(D) pressure its employees to contribute money to
maintain the company's own union
(E) use its resources to prevent the passage of federal
legislation that would have facilitated the formation
of independent unions.
112. The passage supplies information concerning which of
the following matters related to Randolph?
(A) The steps he took to initiate the founding of the
Brotherhood
(B) His motivation for bringing the Brotherhood into the
American Federation of Labor
(C) The influence he had on the passage of legislation
overturning race restrictions in 1944
(D) The influence he had on the passage of legislation to
bar companies from financing their own unions
(E) The success he and the Brotherhood had in
influencing the policies of the other unions in the
American Federation of Labor

RC 15.6

Australian researchers have discovered electroreceptors
(sensory organs designed to respond to electrical fields)
clustered at the tip of the spiny anteater's snout. The
researchers made this discovery by exposing small areas of
(5) the snout to extremely weak electrical fields and recording
the transmission of resulting nervous activity to the brain.
While it is true that tactile receptors, another kind of
sensory organ on the anteater's snout, can also respond to
electrical stimuli, such receptors do so only in response to
( 10) electrical field strengths about 1,000 times greater than
those known to excite electroreceptors.
Having discovered the electroreceptors, researchers are
now investigating how anteaters utilize such a sophisticated
sensory system. In one behavioral experiment, researchers
(15) successfully trained an anteater to distinguish between
two troughs of water, one with a weak electrical field
and the other with none. Such evidence is consistent with
researchers' hypothesis that anteaters use electroreceptors
to detect electrical signals given off by prey; however,
( 20) researchers as yet have been unable to detect electrical
signals emanating from termite mounds, where the favorite
food of anteaters live. Still, researchers have observed
anteaters breaking into a nest of ants at an oblique angle
and quickly locating nesting chambers. This ability quickly
(25)to locate unseen prey suggests, according to the researchers, that the anteaters were using their electroreceptors
to locate the nesting chambers.


101. According to the passage, which of the following is acharacteristic that distinguishes electroreceptors from
tactile receptors?
(A) The manner in which electroreceptors respond to
electrical stimuli
(B) The tendency of electroreceptors to be found in
clusters
(C) The unusual locations in which electroreceptors are
found in most species.
(D) The amount of electrical stimulation required to
excite electroreceptors
(E) The amount of nervous activity transmitted to the
brain by electroreceptors when they are excited


102. Which of the following can be inferred about the
experiment described in the first paragraph?
(A) Researchers had difficulty verifying the existence of
electroreceptors in the anteater because
electroreceptors respond to such a narrow range of
electrical field strengths.
(B) Researchers found that the level of nervous activity
in the anteater's brain increased dramatically as the
strength of the electrical stimulus was increased.
(C) Researchers found that some areas of the anteater's
snout were not sensitive to a weak electrical
stimulus.
(D) Researchers found that the anteater's tactile
receptors were more easily excited by a strong
electrical stimulus than were the electro receptors..
(E) Researchers tested small areas of the anteater's snout
in order to ensure that only electroreceptors were
responding to the stimulus.


103. The author of the passage most probably discusses the
function of tactile receptors (lines 7-11) in order to
(A) eliminate and alternative explanation of anteaters'
response to electrical stimuli
(B) highlight a type of sensory organ that has a function
identical to that of electroreceptors
(C) point out a serious complication in the research on
electroreceptors in anteaters.
(D) suggest that tactile receptors assist electroreceptors
in the detection of electrical signals.
(E) introduce a factor that was not addressed in theresearch on electroreceptors in anteaters.


10 4. Which of the following can be inferred about anteaters
from the behavioral experiment mentioned in the
second paragraph?
(A) They are unable to distinguish between stimuli
detected by their electroreceptors and stimuli
detected by their tactile receptors.
(B) They are unable to distinguish between the electrical
signals emanating from termite mounds and those
emanating from ant nests.
(C) They can be trained to recognize consistently the
presence of a particular stimulus.
(D) They react more readily to strong than to weak
stimuli.
(E) They are more efficient at detecting stimuli in a
controlled environment than in a natural
environment.


105. The passage suggests that the researchers mentioned in
the second paragraph who observed anteaters break into
a nest of ants would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?
(A) The event they observed provides conclusive
evidence that anteaters use their electroreceptors to
locate unseen prey.
(B) The event they observed was atypical and may not
reflect the usual hunting practices of anteaters.
(C) It is likely that the anteaters located the ants' nesting
chambers without the assistance of electroreceptors.
(D) Anteaters possess a very simple sensory system for
use in locating prey.
(E) The speed with which the anteaters located their
prey is greater than what might be expected on the
basis of chance alone.


106. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen
the hypothesis mentioned in lines 17-19?
(A) Researchers are able to train anteaters to break into
an underground chamber that is emitting a strong
electrical signal.
(B) Researchers are able to detect a weak electrical
signal emanating from the nesting chamber of an ant
colony.
(C) Anteaters are observed taking increasingly longer
amounts of time to locate the nesting chambers of
ants.
(D) Anteaters are observed using various angles to break
into nestnests of ants.
(E) Anteaters are observed using the same angle used
with nests of ants to break into the nests of other types
of prey.

15.15

Most large corporations in the United States were
once run by individual capitalists who owned enough
stock to dominate the board of directors and dictate
company policy. Because putting such large amounts of
(5) stock on the market would only depress its value, they
could not sell out for a quick profit and instead had to
concentrate on improving the long-term productivity of
their companies. Today, with few exceptions, the stock
of large United States corporations is held by large
(10) institutions-pension funds, for example-and because
these institutions are prohibited by antitrust laws from
owning a majority of a company's stock and from
actively influencing a company's decision-making, they
can enhance their wealth only by buying and selling
(15) stock in anticipation of fluctuations in its value. A
minority shareholder is necessarily a short term trader.
As a result, United States productivity is unlikely to
improve unless shareholders and the managers of the
companies in which they invest are encouraged to
(20) enhance long-term productivity (and hence long-term
profitability), rather than simply to maximize shortterm
profits.
Since the return of the old-style capitalist is unlikely,
today's short-term traders must be remade into
(25) tomorrow's long-term capitalistic investors. The legal
limits that now prevent financial institutions from
acquiring a dominant shareholding position in a corporation
should be removed, and such institutions encouraged
to take a more active role in the operations of the
(30) companies in which they invest. In addition, any institution
that holds twenty percent or more of a company's
stock should be forced to give the public one day's
notice of the intent to sell those shares. Unless the
announced sale could be explained to the public on
(35) grounds other than anticipated future losses, the value of
the stock would plummet and, like the old-time capitalists,
major investors could cut their losses only by
helping to restore their companies' productivity. Such
measures would force financial institutions to become
(40) capitalists whose success depends not on trading shares
at the propitious moment, but on increasing the productivity
of the companies in which they invest.
88. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which of the following?
(A) Comparing two different approaches to a problem
(B) Describing a problem and proposing a solution
(C) Defending an established method
(D) Presenting data and drawing conclusions from the data
(E) Comparing two different analyses of a current situation
89. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of majority shareholders in a corporation?
(A) They make the corporation's operational management decisions.
(B) They are not allowed to own more than fifty percent of the corporation's stock.
(C) They cannot make quick profits by selling their stock in the corporation.
(D) They are more interested in profits than in productivity.
(E) They cannot sell any of their stock in the corporation without giving the public advance notic.

RC 15.14

A meteor stream is composed of dust particles that have been ejected from a parent comet at a variety of
velocities. These particles follow the same orbit as the parent comet, but due to their differeing velocities they
slowly gain on or fall behind the disintegrating comet until a shroud of dust surrounds the entire cometary orbit.
Astronomers have hypothesized that a meteor stream should broaden with time as the dust particles' individual
orbits are perturbed by planetary gravitational fields. A recent computer-modeling experimetn tested this
hypothesis by tracking the influence of planetary gravitation over a projected 5,000-year period on the positions
of a group of hypothetical dust particles. In the model, the particles were randomly distributed throughout a
computer simulation of the orbit of an actual meteor stream, the Geminid. The researcher found, as expected,
that the computer-model stream broadened with time. Coventional theories, however, predicted that the
distribution of particles would be increaingly dense toward the center of a meteor stream. Surpringly, the
computer-model meteor stream gradually came to resemble a thick-walled, hollow pipe.
Whenever the Earth passes through a meteor stream, a meteor shower occurs. Moving at a li little over 1,500,000
miles per day around its orbit, the Earth would take, on average, just over a day to cross the hollow,
computer-model Geminid stream if the stream were 5,000 years old. Two brief periods of peak meteor activity
during the shower would be observed, one as the Earth entered the thick-walled "pipe" and one as it exited.
There is no reason why the Earth should always pass through the stream's exact center, so the time interval
between the two bursts of activity would vary from one year to the next.
Has the predicted twin-peaked activity been observed for the actual yearly GEminid meteor shower? The
Geminid data between 1970 and 1979 show just such a bifurcation, a secondary burst of meteor activity being clearly visible at an average of 19 hourse (1,200,000 miles) after the first burst. The time intervals between the
bursts suggest the actual Geminid stream is about 3,000 years old.

80. The primary focus of the passage is on which of the following?
(A) Comparing two scientific theories and contrasting the predictions that each would make concerning a natural
phenomenon
(B) Describing a new theoretical model and noting that it explains the nature of observations made of a particular
natural phenomenon
(C) Evaluating the results of a particular scientific experiment and suggesting further areas for research
(D) Explaining how two different natural phenomena are related and demonstrating a way to measure them
(E) Analyzing recent data derived from observations of an actual phenomenon and constructing a model to
explain the data
81. According to the passage, which of the following is an accurate statement concerning meteor streams?
(A) Meteor streams and comets start out with smiliar orbits, but only those of meteor streams are perturbed by
planetary gravittion.
(B) Meteor streams grow as dust particles are attracted by the gravitational fields of comets.
(C) Meteor streams are composed of dust particles derived from comets.
(D) Comets may be composed of several kinds of materials, while meteor streams consitst only of large dust
particles.
(E) Once formed, meteor streams hasten the further disintegration of comets
.
82. The author states that the research described in the first paragraph was undertaken in order to
(A) determine the age of an actual meteor stream
(B) Identify the various structural features of meteor streams
(C) explore the nature of a particularly interesting meteor stream
(D) test the hypothesis that meteor streams become broader as they age
(E) show that a computer model could help in explaining actual astronomical data

83. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably be observed during the
Earth's passage through a meteor stream if the conventional theories mentioned in line 18 were
(A) Meteor activity would gradually increase to a single, intense peak, and then gradually decline.
(B) Meteor activity would be steady throughout the period of the meteor shower.
(C) Meteor activity would rise to a peak at the beginning and at the end of the meteor shower.
(D) Random bursts of very high meteor activity would be interspersed with periods of very little activity.
(E) In years in which the Earth passed through only the outer areas of a meteor stream, meteor activity would be
absent.


84. According to the passage, why do the dust particles in a meteor stream eventually surround a comet's
orginla orbit?
(A) They are ejected by the comet at differing velocities.
(B) Their orbits are uncontrolled by planetary gravitational fields.
(C) They become part of the meteor stream at different times.
(D) Their velocity slows over time.
(E) Their ejection velocity is slower than that of the comet.

85. The passage suggests that which of the following is a prediction concerning meteor streams that can be
derived from both the conventional theories mentioned in line 18 and the new computer-derived theory(A) Dust particles in a meteor stream will usually be distributed evenly throughout any cross section of the
steam.
(B) The orbits of most meteor streams should cross the orbit of the Earth at some point and give rise to a meteor
shower.
(C) Over time the distribution of dust in a meteor stream will usually become denser at the outside edges of the
stream than at the center.
(D) Meteor showers caused by older by older meteor streams should be, on average, longer in duration than
those caused by very young meteor streams.
(E) The individual dust particles in older meteor streams should be, on average, smaller than those that
compose younger meteor streams.

86. It can be inferred from the last paragraph of the passage that which of the following must be true of the Earth
as it orbits the Sun?
(A) Most meteor streams it encounters are more than 2,000 years old.
(B) When passing through a meteor stream, it usually passes near to the stream's center.
(C) It crosses the Geminid meteor stream once every year.
(D) It usually takes over a day to cross the actual Geminid meteor stream.
(E) It accounts of msot of the gravitaitonal perturbation affecting the Geminid meteor stream.


87. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the last sentence of the passage?
(A) In each of the years between 1970 and 1979, the Earth took exactly 19 hours to cross the Geminid meteor
stream.
(B) The comet associated with the Geminid meteor stream has totally disintegrated.
(C) The Geminid meteor stream should continue to exist for at least 5,000 years.
(D) The Geminid meteor stream has not broadended as rapidly as the conventiona ltheories would have
predicted.
(E) The computer-model Geminid meteor stream provides an accurate representation of the development of the
actual Geminid stream.

RC 15.13

Two recent publications offer different assessment of the career of the famous British nurse Florence
Nightingale. A book by Anne Summers seeks to debunk the idealizations and present a reality at odds with
Nightingale's heroic reputation. According to Summers, Nightingale's importance during the Crimean War
has been exaggerated: not until near the war's end did she become supervisor of the female nurses.
Additionally, Summers writes that the contribution of the nurses to the relief of the wounded was at best
marginal. The prevailing problems of military medicine were caused by army organizaitonal pratices, and
the addition of a few nurses to the medical staff could be no more than symbolic. Nightingale's place in the
national pantheon, Summers asserts, is lrgely due to the propagandistic efforts of contemporary newspaper
reporters.
By contrast, the editors of a new volume of Nightingale's letters view Nightingale as a person who
significantly influenced not only her own age but also subsequenct generations. They highlight her ongoing
efforts to reform sanitary conditions after the war. For example, when she leanred that peacetime living
conditions in British barracks were so horrible that the death rate of enlisted men far exeeded that ofneighboring civilian populations, she succeeded in persuading the government to establish a Royal
Commission on the Health of the Army. She used sums raised through public contributions to found a
nurses' traning hospital in London. Even in administrative matters, the editors assert, her practical
intelligence was formidable: as recently as 1947 the British Army's medical services were still using the
cost-accounting system she had devised in the 1860's.
I believe that the evidence of her letters supports continued respect for Nightingale's brilliance and creativity.
When counseling a village schoolmaster to encourage children to use their faculties of observation, she
sounds like a modern educator. Her insistence on classifying the problems of the needy in order to devise
appropriate treatments is similar to the approach of modern social workers. In sum, although Nightingale
may not have achieved all of her goals during the Crimean War, her breadth of vision and ability to realize
ambitious projects have earned her an eminent place among the ranks of social pioneers.

73. The passage is primarily concerned with evaluating
(A) the importance of Florence Nightingale's innovations in the field of nursing
(B) contrasting approaches to the writing of historical biography
(C) contradictory accounts of Florence Nightingale's historical significance
(D) the quality of health care in nineteenth-century England
(E) the effect of the Crimean War on developments in the field of health care

74. According to the passage, the editors of Nightingale's letters credit her with contributing to which of the
following?
(A) Improving of the survival rate for soldiers in British Army hospitals during the Crimean War
(B) The development of a nurses' training curriculum that was far in advance of its day
(C) The increase in the number of women doctors practicing in British Army hospitals
(D) Establishment of the first facility for traiing nurses at a major British university
(E) The creation of an organization for monitoring the peacetime living conditions of British soldiers

75. The passage suggests which of the following about Nightingale's relationship with the British public of her
day?
(A) She was highly respected, her projects receiving popular and governmental support.
(B) She encountered resistance both from the army establishment and the general public.
(C) She was supported by the working classes and opposed by the wealthier classes.
(D) She was supported by the military establishment but had to fight the governmental bureaucracy.
(E) After intially being received with enthusiams, she was quickly forgotten.

76. The passage suggests which of the following about sanitary conditions in Britain after the Crimean War?
(A) While not ideal, they were superior to those in other parts of the world.
(B) Compared with conditions before the war, they had deteriorated.
(C) They were more advanced in rural areas than in the urban centers.
(D) They were worse in military camps than in the neighboring civilian populations.
(E) They were unifromaly crude and unsatisfactory throughout England.

77. Which which of the following statements regarding the differing interpretations of Nightingale's importance would the author most likely agree?
(A) Summers misunderstood both the importance of Nightingale's achievements during the Crimean War and
her subsequent influence on British policy.
(B) The editors of Nightingale's letters made some valid points about her practical achievements, but they still
exaggerated her influence on subsequent generations.
(C) Although Summers' account of Nightingale's role in the Crimean War may be accurate, she ignored
evidence of Nightingales' subsequent achievement that suggests that her reputation as an eminent social
reformer is welldeserved.
(D) The editors of Nightingale's letters mistakenly propagated the outdated idealization of Nightingale that only
impedes attempts to arrive at a balance assessment of her true role.
(E) The evidence of Nightingale's letters supports Summers' conclusions both about Nightingale's activities and
about her influence

78. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the author's assessment of Nightingale's creativity?
(A) Educational philosophy in Nightingale's day did not normally emphasize developing children's ability to
observe.
(B) Nightingale was the first to notice the poor living conditions in British military barracks in peacetime.
(C) No educator before Nightingale had thought to enlist the help of village shcoolmasters in introducing new
teaching techniques.
(D) Until Nightingale began her work, there was no concept of organized help for the needy in
nineteenth-century Britain.
(E) The British Army's medical services had no cost-accounting system until Nightingale devised one in the
1860's.

79. In the last paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) summarizing the arguments about Nightingale presented in the first two paragraphs
(B) refuting the view of Nightingale's career presented in the preceding pargraph
(C) analyzing the weaknesses of the evidence presented elsewhere in the passage
(D) citing evidence to support a view of Nightingale's career
(E) correcting a factual error occurring in one of the works under revie

RC 15.12

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the
same complement of genes. How then can these cells
differentiate and form structures as different as roots,
stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a
(5) small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are
expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished
by a complex system of chemical messengers
that in plants include hormones and other regulatory
molecules. Five major hormones have been identified:
(10) auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin.
Studies of plants have now identified a new class ofregulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.
Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant
hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific, that is,
(15) each has more than one effect on the growth and development
of plants. The five has so many simultaneous
effects that they are not very useful in artificially
controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance,
stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to
(20) grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the
growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to
develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to
produce ethylene.
The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant
(25) hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain
hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the
hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe
of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many
different hormones, one of which stimulates the release
(30) of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones
have specific effects on target organs all over the body.
One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for
example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth.
In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones.
(35) Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins
are fragments of the cell wall released by
enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins.
There are indications that pleiotropic plant
hormones may actually function by activating the
(40) enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical
messengers from the cell wall.


67. According to the passage, the five well-known plant hormones are not useful in controlling the growth of crops because
(A) it is not known exactly what functions the hormones perform
(B) each hormone has various effects on plants
(C) none of the hormones can function without the others
(D) each hormone has different effects on different kinds of plants
(E) each hormone works on only a small subset of a cell's genes at any particular time


68. The passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic hormones in the hormonal hierarchies of animals is similar to the
place of which of the following in plants?
(A) Plant cell walls
(B) The complement of genes in each plant cell
(C) A subset of a plant cell's gene complement
(D) The five major hormones
(E) The oligosaccharins


69. The passage suggests that which of the following is a function likely to be performed by an oligosaccharin?
(A) To stimulate a particular plant cell to become part of a plant's root system
(B) To stimulate the walls of a particular cell to produce other oligosaccharins
(C) To activate enzymes that release specific chemical messengers from plant cell walls
(D) To duplicate the gene complement in a particular plant cell
(E) To produce multiple effects on a particular subsystem of plant cells

70. The author mentions specific effects that auxin has on plant development in order to illustrate the
(A) point that some of the effects of plant hormones can be harmful
(B) way in which hormones are produced by plants
(C) hierarchical nature of the functioning of plant hormones
(D) differences among the best-known plant hormones
(E) concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant hormones

71. According to the passage, which of the following best describes a function performed by oligosaccharins?
(A) Regulating the daily functioning of a plant's cells
(B) Interacting with one another to produce different chemicals
(C) Releasing specific chemical messengers from a plant's cell walls
(D) Producing the hormones that cause plant cells to differentiate to perform different functions
(E) Influencing the development of a plant's cells by controlling the expression of the cells' genes

72. The passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic hormones, oligosaccharins could be used effectively to
(A) trace the passage of chemicals through the walls of cells
(B) pinpoint functions of other plant hormones
(C) artificially control specific aspects of the development of crops
(D) alter the complement of genes in the cells of plants
(E) alter the effects of the five major hormones on plant development

RC 15.11

At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest
in Native American customs and an increasing desire to
understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists
to begin recording the life stories of Native Amer-
(5) ican. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to
hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological
data that would supplement their own field
observations, and they believed that the personal
stories, even of a single individual, could increase their
(10) understanding of the cultures that they had been
observing from without. In addition many ethnologists
at the turn of the century believed that Native American
manners and customs were rapidly disappearing,
and that it was important to preserve for posterity as
(15) much information as could be adequately recorded
before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments against this method
as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information.
Franz Boas, for example, described autobiogra-
(20) phies as being "of limited value, and useful chiefly for
the study of the perversion of truth by memory," while
232
Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent
enough time with the tribes they were observing, and
inevitably derived results too tinged by the investi-
(25) gator's own emotional tone to be reliable.
Even more importantly, as these life stories moved
from the traditional oral mode to recorded written
form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided
what elements were significant to the field research on a
(30) given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the
essence of their lives could not be communicated in
English and that events that they thought significant
were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers.
Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force
(35) Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as
taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead
relatives crucial to their family stories.
Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful
tool for ethnological research: such personal reminis-
(40) cences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are
likely to throw more light on the working of the mind
and emotions than any amount of speculation from an
ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another
culture.


61. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) The historical backgrounds of two currently used research methods are chronicled.
(B) The validity of the data collected by using two different research methods is compared.
(C) The usefulness of a research method is questioned and then a new method is proposed.
(D) The use of a research method is described and the limitations of the results obtained are discussed.
(E) A research method is evaluated and the changes necessary for its adaptation to other subject areas are
discussed.


62. Which of the following is most similar to the actions of nineteenth-century ethnologists in their editing of the life stories of
Native Americans?
(A) A witness in a jury trial invokes the Fifth Amendment in order to avoid relating personally incriminating evidence.
(B) A stockbroker refuses to divulge the source of her information on the possible future increase in a stock's value.
(C) A sports announcer describes the action in a team sport with which he is unfamiliar.
(D) A chef purposely excludes the special ingredient from the recipe of his prizewinning dessert.
(E) A politician fails to mention in a campaign speech the similarities in the positions held by her opponent for political
office and by herself.


63. According to the passage, collecting life stories can be a useful methodology because
(A) life stories provide deeper insights into a culture than the hypothesizing of academics who are not members of
that culture
(B) life stories can be collected easily and they are not subject to invalid interpretations
(C) ethnologists have a limited number of research methods from which to choose
(D) life stories make it easy to distinguish between the important and unimportant features of a culture
(E) the collection of life stories does not require a culturally knowledgeable investigator

64. Information in the passage suggests that which of the following may be a possible way to eliminate bias in the editing of
life stories?
(A) Basing all inferences made about the culture on an ethnological theory
(B) Eliminating all of the emotion-laden information reported by the informant
(C) Translating the informant's words into the researcher's language
(D) Reducing the number of questions and carefully specifying the content of the questions that the investigator can
ask the informant
(E) Reporting all of the information that the informant provides regardless of the investigator's personal opinion about
its intrinsic value


65. The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to
(A) question an explanation
(B) correct a misconception
(C) critique a methodology
(D) discredit an idea
(E) clarify an ambiguity


66. It can be inferred from the passage that a characteristic of the ethnological research on Native Americans conducted
during the nineteenth century was the use of which of the following?
(A) Investigators familiar with the culture under study
(B) A language other than the informant's for recording life stories
(C) Life stories as the ethnologist's primary source of information
(D) Complete transcriptions of informants' descriptions of tribal beliefs
(E) Stringent guidelines for the preservation of cultural data

RC 15.10

Many United States companies have, unfortunately,
made the search for legal protection from import
competition into a major line of work. Since 1980 the
United States International Trade Commission (ITC)
(5) has received about 280 complaints alleging damage
from imports that benefit from subsidies by foreign
governments. Another 340 charge that foreign companies
"dumped" their products in the United States at
"less than fair value." Even when no unfair practices
(10) are alleged, the simple claim that an industry has been
injured by imports is sufficient grounds to seek relief.
Contrary to the general impression, this quest for
import relief has hurt more companies than it has
helped. As corporations begin to function globally, they
(15) develop an intricate web of marketing, production, and
research relationships, The complexity of these relationships
makes it unlikely that a system of import relief
laws will meet the strategic needs of all the units under
the same parent company.
(20) Internationalization increases the danger that foreign
companies will use import relief laws against the very
companies the laws were designed to protect. Suppose a
United States-owned company establishes an overseas
plant to manufacture a product while its competitor
(25) makes the same product in the United States. If the
competitor can prove injury from the imports---and
that the United States company received a subsidy from
a foreign government to build its plant abroad—the
United States company's products will be uncompeti230
(30) tive in the United States, since they would be subject to
duties.
Perhaps the most brazen case occurred when the ITC
investigated allegations that Canadian companies were
injuring the United States salt industry by dumping
(35) rock salt, used to de-ice roads. The bizarre aspect of the
complaint was that a foreign conglomerate with United
States operations was crying for help against a United
States company with foreign operations. The "United
States" company claiming injury was a subsidiary of a
(40) Dutch conglomerate, while the "Canadian" companies
included a subsidiary of a Chicago firm that was the
second-largest domestic producer of rock salt.


55. The passage is chiefly concerned with
(A) arguing against the increased internationalization of United States corporations
(B) warning that the application of laws affecting trade frequently has unintended consequences
(C) demonstrating that foreign-based firms receive more subsidies from their governments than United States firms
receive from the United States government
(D) advocating the use of trade restrictions for "dumped" products but not for other imports
(E) recommending a uniform method for handling claims of unfair trade practices

56. It can be inferred from the passage that the minimal basis for a complaint to the International Trade Commission is which
of the following?
(A) A foreign competitor has received a subsidy from a foreign government.
(B) A foreign competitor has substantially increased the volume of products shipped to the United States.
(C) A foreign competitor is selling products in the United States at less than fair market value.
(D) The company requesting import relief has been injured by the sale of imports in the United States.
(E) The company requesting import relief has been barred from exporting products to the country of its foreign
competitor.

57. The last paragraph performs which of the following functions in the passage?
(A) It summarizes the discussion thus far and suggests additional areas of research.
(B) It presents a recommendation based on the evidence presented earlier.
(C) It discusses an exceptional case in which the results expected by the author of the passage were not obtained.
(D) It introduces an additional area of concern not mentioned earlier.
(E) It cites a specific case that illustrates a problem presented more generally in the previous paragraph.

58. The passage warns of which of the following dangers?
(A) Companies in the United States may receive no protection from imports unless they actively seek protection from
import competition.
(B) Companies that seek legal protection from import competition may incur legal costs that far exceed any possible
gain.

(C) Companies that are United States-owned but operate internationally may not be eligible for protection from import
competition under the laws of the countries in which their plants operate.
(D) Companies that are not United States-owned may seek legal protection fro m import competition under United
States import relief laws.
(E) Companies in the United States that import raw materials may have to pay duties on those materials.

59. The passage suggests that which of the following is most likely to be true of United States trade laws?
(A) They will eliminate the practice of "dumping" products in the United States.
(B) They will enable manufacturers in the United States to compete more profitably outside the United States.
(C) They will affect United States trade with Canada more negatively than trade with other nations.
(D) Those that help one unit within a parent company will not necessarily help other units in the company.
(E) Those that are applied to international companies will accomplish their intended result.

60. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about the complaint mentioned in the
last paragraph?
(A) The ITC acted unfairly toward the complainant in its investigation.
(B) The complaint violated the intent of import relief laws.
(C) The response of the ITC to the complaint provided suitable relief from unfair trade practices to the complainant.
(D) The ITC did not have access to appropriate information concerning the case.
(E) Each of the companies involved in the complaint acted in its own best interest.

RC 15.9

Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century
that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth's
orbit around the Sun. For sometime this theory was
considered untestable, largely because there was no suffi-
(5) ciently precise chronology of the ice ages with which
the orbital variations could be matched.
To establish such a chronology it is necessary to
determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed
at various times in the Earth's past. A recent discovery
(10) makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice
volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio
of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sediments.
Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but
a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the
(15) heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins, the continental
ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of
water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually
return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left
behid when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces,
(20) the remaining ocean water becomes progressively
enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can
be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the
period, because these sediments are composed of calcium
carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were
(25) constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the surrounding
ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to
oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice
there was when the sediment was laid down.
As an indicator of shifts in the Earth's climate, the
(30) isotope record has two advantages. First, it is a global
record: there is remarkably little variation in isotope
ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different
continental locations. Second, it is a more continuous
record than that taken from rocks on land. Because of
(35) these advantages, sedimentary evidence can be dated
with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods to
establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated
isotope record shows that the fluctuations in global
ice volume over the past several hundred thousand years
(40) have a pattern: an ice age occurs roughly once every
100,000 years. These data have established a strong
connection between variations in the Earth's orbit and
the periodicity of the ice ages.
However, it is important to note that other factors,
(45) such as volcanic particulates or variations in the amount
of sunlight received by the Earth, could potentially have
affected the climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch
theory is that it is testable: changes in the Earth's orbit
can be calculated and dated by applying Newton's laws
(50) of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the
bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of information
about other possible factors affecting global climate does
not make them unimportant.

49. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
(A) suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method
(B) introducing a new research method that calls an accepted theory into question
(C) emphasizing the instability of data gathered from the application of a new scientific method
(D) presenting a theory and describing a new method to test that theory
(E) initiating a debate about a widely accepted theory

50. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the
Milankovitch theory?
(A) It is the only possible explanation for the ice ages.
(B) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation for the ice ages, despite recent research findings.
(C) It cannot be tested and confirmed until further research on volcanic activity is done.
(D) It is one plausible explanation, though not the only one, for the ice ages.
(E) It is not a plausible explanation for the ice ages, although it has opened up promising possibilities for future
research.

51. It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope record taken from ocean sediments would be less useful to
researchers if which of the following were true?
(A) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen predominated at certain times.
(B) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the record taken from rocks on land.
(C) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur every 100,000 years.
(D) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 in ocean water were not consistent with those found in
fresh water.
(E) It stretched back for only a million years.

52. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean sediments?
(A) They indicate that sediments found during an ice age contain more calcium carbonate than sediments formed at
other times.
(B) They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks on land in determining the volume of land ice.
(C) They can be used to deduce the relative volume of land ice that was present when the sediment was laid down.
(D) They are more unpredictable during an ice age than in other climatic conditions.
(E) They can be used to determine atmospheric conditions at various times in the past.

53. It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation formed from evaporated ocean water has
(A) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water
(B) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water
(C) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in continental ice sheets
(D) a different isotopic composition than has precipitation formed from water on land
(E) more oxygen 16 than has precipitation formed from fresh water

54. It can be inferred from the passage that calcium carbonate shells
(A) are not as susceptible to deterioration as rocks
(B) are less common in sediments formed during an ice age
(C) are found only in areas that were once covered by land ice
(D) contain radioactive material that can be used to determine a sediment's isotopic composition
(E) reflect the isotopic composition of the water at the time the shells were formed

RC 15.7

Passage 7
In 1896 a Georgia couple suing for damages in the
accidental death of their two year old was told that since
the child had made no real economic contribution to the
family, there was no liability for damages. In contrast,
(5) less than a century later, in 1979, the parents of a three
year old sued in New York for accidental-death damages
and won an award of $750,000.
The transformation in social values implicit in juxtaposing
these two incidents is the subject of Viviana
(10) Zelizer's excellent book, Pricing the Priceless Child.
During the nineteenth century, she argues, the concept
of the "useful" child who contributed to the family
economy gave way gradually to the present-day notion
of the "useless" child who, though producing no income
(15) for, and indeed extremely costly to, its parents, is yet
considered emotionally "priceless." Well established
among segments of the middle and upper classes by the
mid-1800's, this new view of childhood spread throughout
society in the iate-nineteenth and early-twentieth
(20) centuries as reformers introduced child-labor regulations
and compulsory education laws predicated in part on the
assumption that a child's emotional value made child
labor taboo.
For Zelizer the origins of this transformation were
(25) many and complex. The gradual erosion of children's
productive value in a maturing industrial economy,
the decline in birth and death rates, especially in child
mortality, and the development of the companionate
family (a family in which members were united by
(30) explicit bonds of love rather than duty) were all factors
critical in changing the assessment of children's worth.
Yet "expulsion of children from the 'cash nexus,'...
although clearly shaped by profound changes in the
economic, occupational, and family structures," Zelizer
(35) maintains. "was also part of a cultural process 'of sacralization'
of children's lives. " Protecting children from the
crass business world became enormously important for
late-nineteenth-century middle-class Americans, she
suggests; this sacralization was a way of resisting what
(40) they perceived as the relentless corruption of human
values by the marketplace.
In stressing the cultural determinants of a child's
worth. Zelizer takes issue with practitioners of the new
"sociological economics," who have analyzed such tradi-
(45) tionally sociological topics as crime, marriage, education,
and health solely in terms of their economic determinants.
Allowing only a small role for cultural forces
in the form of individual "preferences," these sociologists
tend to view all human behavior as directed primarily by
(50) the principle of maximizing economic gain. Zelizer is
highly critical of this approach, and emphasizes instead
the opposite phenomenon: the power of social values to
transform price. As children became more valuable in
emotional terms, she argues, their "exchange" or " sur-
(55) render" value on the market, that is, the conversion of
their intangible worth into cash terms, became much
greater.


37. It can be inferred from the passage that accidental-death damage awards in America during the nineteenth
century tended to be based principally on the
(A) earnings of the person at time of death
(B) wealth of the party causing the death
(C) degree of culpability of the party causing the death
(D) amount of money that had been spent on the person killed
(E) amount of suffering endured by the family of the person killed


38. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 1800's children were generally regarded by their families as
individuals who
(A) needed enormous amounts of security and affection
(B) required constant supervision while working
(C) were important to the economic well-being of a family
(D) were unsuited to spending long hours in school
(E) were financial burdens assumed for the good of society


39. Which of the following alternative explanations of the change in the cash value of children would be most likely
to be put forward by sociological economists as they are described in the passage?

(A) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because parents began to increase their emotional
investment in the upbringing of their children.
(B) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because their expected earnings over the course of
a lifetime increased greatly.
(C) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because the spread of humanitarian ideals resulted
in a wholesale reappraisal of the worth of an individual
(D) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because compulsory education laws reduced the
supply, and thus raised the costs, of available child labor.
(E) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because of changes in the way negligence law
assessed damages in accidental-death cases.


40. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) review the literature in a new academic subfield
(B) present the central thesis of a recent book
(C) contrast two approaches to analyzing historical change
(D) refute a traditional explanation of a social phenomenon
(E) encourage further work on a neglected historical topic


41. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following statements was true of American families over the
course of the nineteenth century?
(A) The average size of families grew considerably
(B) The percentage of families involved in industrial work declined dramatically.
(C) Family members became more emotionally bonded to one another.
(D) Family members spent an increasing amount of time working with each other.
(E) Family members became more economically dependent on each other.


42. Zelizer refers to all of the following as important influences in changing the assessment of children's worth
EXCEPT changes in
(A) the mortality rate
(B) the nature of industry
(C) the nature of the family
(D) attitudes toward reform movements
(E) attitudes toward the marketplace

RC 16.6

Passage 6
In the two decades between 1910 and 1930, over
ten percent to the Black population of the United States
left the South, where the preponderance of the Black

population had been located, and migrated to northern
(5) states, with the largest number moving, it is claimed,
between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently assumed,
but not proved, that the majority of the migrants in
what has come to be called the Great Migration came
from rural areas and were motivated by two concurrent
(10) factors: the collapse of the cotton industry following
the boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898, and
increased demand in the North for labor following
the cessation of European immigration caused by the
outbreak of the First World War in 1914. This assump-
(15) tion has led to the conclusion that the migrants' subsequent
lack of economic mobility in the North is tied to
rural background, a background that implies unfamiliarity
with urban living and a lack of industrial skills.
But the question of who actually left the South has
(20) never been rigorously investigated. Although numerous
investigations document an exodus from rural southern
areas to southern cities prior to the Great Migration.
no one has considered whether the same migrants then
moved on to northern cities. In 1910 over 600,000
(25) Black workers, or ten percent of the Black work force,
reported themselves to be engaged in "manufacturing
and mechanical pursuits," the federal census category
roughly encompassing the entire industrial sector. The
Great Migration could easily have been made up entirely
(30) of this group and their families. It is perhaps surprising
to argue that an employed population could be enticed
to move, but an explanation lies in the labor conditions
then prevalent in the South.
About thirty-five percent of the urban Black popu-
(35) lation in the South was engaged in skilled trades. Some
were from the old artisan class of slavery-blacksmiths.
masons, carpenters-which had had a monopoly of
certain trades, but they were gradually being pushed
out by competition, mechanization, and obsolescence,
(40) The remaining sixty-five percent, more recently urbanized,
worked in newly developed industries---tobacco.
lumber, coal and iron manufacture, and railroads.
Wages in the South, however, were low, and Black
workers were aware, through labor recruiters and the
(45)Black press, that they could earn more even as unskilled
workers in the North than they could as artisans in the
South. After the boll weevil infestation, urban Black
workers faced competition from the continuing influx
of both Black and White rural workers, who were driven
(50) to undercut the wages formerly paid for industrial jobs.
Thus, a move north would be seen as advantageous
to a group that was already urbanized and steadily
employed, and the easy conclusion tying their subsequent
economic problems in the North to their rural
background comes into question.


31. The author indicates explicitly that which of the following records has been a source of information in her
investigation?
(A) United States Immigration Service reports from 1914 to 1930
(B) Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms between 1910 and 1930
(C) The volume of cotton exports between 1898 and 1910
(D) The federal census of 1910
(E) Advertisements of labor recruiters appearing in southern newspapers after 1910


32. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the following as a possible objection to her argument?
(A) It is uncertain how many people actually migrated during the Great Migration.
(B) The eventual economic status of the Great Migration migrants has not been adequately traced.
(C) It is not likely that people with steady jobs would have reason to move to another area of the country.
(D) It is not true that the term "manufacturing and mechanical pursuits" actually encompasses the entire industrial
sector.
(E) Of the Black workers living in southern cities, only those in a small number of trades were threatened by
obsolescence.''


33. According to the passage, which of the following is true of wages in southern cities in 1910?
(A) They were being pushed lower as a result of increased competition.
(B) They had begun t to rise so that southern industry could attract rural workers.
(C) They had increased for skilled workers but decreased for unskilled workers.
(D) They had increased in large southern cities but decreased in small southern cities.
(E) They had increased in newly developed industries but decreased in the older trades.


34. The author cites each of the following as possible influences in a Black worker's decision to migrate north in the
Great Migration EXCEPT
(A) wage levels in northern cities
(B) labor recruiters
(C) competition from rural workers
(D) voting rights in northern states
(E) the Black press


35. It can be inferred from the passage that the "easy conclusion" mentioned in line 53 is based on which of the
following assumptions?
(A) People who migrate from rural areas to large cities usually do so for economic reasons.
(B) Most people who leave rural areas to take jobs in cities return to rural areas as soon as it is financially possible
for them to do so.
(C) People with rural backgrounds are less likely to succeed economically in cities than are those with urban
backgrounds.
(D) Most people who were once skilled workers are not willing to work as unskilled workers.
(E) People who migrate from their birthplaces to other regions of country seldom undertake a second migration.

36. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) support an alternative to an accepted methodology
(B) present evidence that resolves a contradiction
(C) introduce a recently discovered source of information
(D) challenge a widely accepted explanation
(E) argue that a discarded theory deserves new attention

RC 15.5

Passage 5
Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they
separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts
at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop
as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the
(5) cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense
that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of
different ways. Later biologists found that the situation
was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo
is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used
(10) by the early investigators, it will not form two whole
embryos.
A debate arose over what exactly was happening.
Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they218
become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what
(15) are the "morphogenetic determinants" that tell a cell
what to become? But the debate could not be resolved
because no one was able to ask the crucial questions
in a form in which they could be pursued productively.
Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have
(20) opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate.
Now investigators think they know at least some of the
molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in
early development. They have been able o show that,
in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg
(25) is fertilized.
Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found
that an unfertilized egg contains substances that function
as morphogenetic determinants. They are located
in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the
(30) cell's protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the
unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not
distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized,
the substances become active and, presumably, govern
the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the
(35) substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the
fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different
from the start and so can be qualitatively different in
their own gene activity.
The substances that Gross studied are maternal
(40) messenger RNA's --products of certain of the maternal
genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety
of organisms have found that these particular RNA's
direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class
of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the
(45) histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of
DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resembles
beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA
segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the
intervening DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded
(50) DNA strings that guides the fate of the cells in which
they are located.



25. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are
(A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
(B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally

(C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their final function
(D) identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized egg
(E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual


26. The main topic of the passage is
(A) the early development of embryos of lower marine organisms
(B) the main contribution of modern embryology to molecular biology
(C) the role of molecular biology in disproving older theories of embryonic development
(D) cell determination as an issue in the study of embryonic development
(E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over the value of molecular biology


27. According to the passage, when biologists believed that the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they
made which of the following mistakes?
(A) They did not attempt to replicate the original experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.
(B) They did not realize that there was a connection between the issue of cell determination and the outcome of the
separation experiment.
(C) They assumed that the results of experiments on embryos did not depend on the particular animal species used
for such experiments.
(D) They assumed that it was crucial to perform the separation experiment at an early stage in the embryo's life.
(E) They assumed that different ways of separating an embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far as the fate
of the two parts was concerned.


28. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes place
(A) in the cytoplasm
(B) in the maternal genes
(C) throughout the protoplasm
(D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
(E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus


29. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?
(A) Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal messenger RNA's
(B) Sythesis of proteins called histones
(C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
(D) Determination of the egg cell's potential for division
(E) Generation of all of a cell's morphogenetic determinants


30. According to the passage, the morphogenetic determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are which of the
following?
(A) Proteins bound to the nucleus
(B) Histones
(C) Maternal messenger RNA's
(D) Cytoplasm
(E) Nonbeaded intervening DNA

RC 15.4

The majority of successful senior managers do not
closely follow the classical rational model of first clarifying
goals, assessing the problem, formulating options,
estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision,
(5) and only then taking action to implement the decision.
Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these
senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed "intuition"
to mangage a network of interrelated problems
that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency,
(10) novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the
process to thinking.
Generations of writers on management have recognized
that some practicing managers rely heavily on
intuition. In general, however, such writers display a
(15) poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the opposite
of rationality: others view it as an excuse for capriciousness.
Isenberg's recent research on the cognitive processes
of senior managers reveals that managers' intuition is
(20) neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition
in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense
when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intuition
to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly.
This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based
(25) on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experience
that build skills. A third function of intuition is to
synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated
picture, often in an "Aha!" experience. Fourth,

some managers use intuition as a check on the results
(30) of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are
familiar with the formal decision analysis models and
tools, and those who use such systematic methods for
reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions
suggested by these methods which run counter to their
(35) sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers
can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move
rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this
way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive
process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns.
(40) One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive
management is that "thinking" is inseparable from
acting. Since managers often "know" what is right
before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently
act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied
(45) to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers
develop thoughts about their companies and organizations
not by analyzing a problematic situation and then
acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.
Given the great uncertainty of many of the manage-
(50) ment issues that they face, senior managers often instigate
a course of action simply to learn more about an
issue. They then use the results of the action to develop
a more complete understanding of the issue. One implication
of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often
(55) part of defining the problem, not just of implementing
the solution.

19. According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(A) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem
(B) identify a problem
(C) bring together disparate facts
(D) stipulate clear goals
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem

20. The passage suggests which of the following about the "writers on management" mentioned in line 12?

(A) They have criticized managers for not following the classical rational model of decision analysis.
(B) They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently large sample of actual managers.
(C) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on what managers say rather than on what managers do.
(D) They have misunderstood how managers use intuition in making business decisions.
(E) They have not acknowledged the role of intuition in managerial practice.


21. Which of the following best exemplifies "an 'Aha!' experience" (line 28) as it is presented in the passage?
(A) A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is unpredictable to discover whether the action changes the
problem at hand.
(B) A manager performs well-learned and familiar behavior patterns in creative and uncharacteristic ways to solve a
problem.
(C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to the
problem at hand.
(D) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used to compile data yielded by systematic analysis.
(E) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of tactics to implement in order to deal with the contingencies
suggested by a problem.


22. According to the passage, the classical model of decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT
(A) evaluation of a problem
(B) creation of possible solutions to a problem
(C) establishment of clear goals to be reached by the decision
(D) action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problem
(E) comparison of the probable effects of different solutions to a problem

23. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably be one major difference in
behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal decision
analysis?
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not.
(E) Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical maneuvering; manager X does not.


24. The passage provides support for which of the following statements?
(A) Managers who rely on intuition are more successful than those who rely on formal decision analysis.
(B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.
(C) Managers' intuition works contrary to their rational and analytical skills
(D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the number of possible solutions.
(E) Intuition enables managers to employ their practical experience more efficiently.

RC 15.3

Federal efforts to aid minority businesses began in the
1960's when the Small Business Administration (SBA)
began making federally guaranteed loans and government-
sponsored management and technical assistance
(5) available to minority business enterprises. While this
program enabled many minority entrepreneurs to
form new businesses, the results were disappointing,
since managerial inexperience, unfavorable locations,
and capital shortages led to high failure rates. Even 15
(10) years after the program was implemented, minority
business receipts were not quite two percent of the national
economy's total receipts.
Recently federal policymakers have adopted an
approach intended to accelerate development of the
(15) minority business sector by moving away from directly

aiding small minority enterprises and toward supporting
larger, growth-oriented minority firms through intermediary
companies. In this approach, large corporations
participate in the development of successful and stable
(20) minority businesses by making use of governmentsponsored
venture capital. The capital is used by a
participating company to establish a Minority Enterprise
Small Business Investment Company or MESBIC. The
MESBIC then provides capital and guidance to minority
(25) businesses that have potential to become future suppliers
or customers of the sponsoring company.
MESBIC's are the result of the belief that providing
established firms with easier access to relevant management
techniques and more job-specific experience, as
(30) well as substantial amounts of capital, gives those firms
a greater opportunity to develop sound business foundations
than does simply making general management
experience and small amounts of capital available.
Further, since potential markets for the minority busi-
(35) nesses already exist through the sponsoring companies,
the minority businesses face considerably less risk in
terms of location and market fluctuation. Following
early financial and operating problems, sponsoring
corporations began to capitalize MESBIC's far above
(40) the legal minimum of $500,000 in order to generate
sufficient income and to sustain the quality of management
needed. MESBIC'c are now emerging as increasingly
important financing sources for minority enterprises.
(45) Ironically, MESBIC staffs, which usually consist of
Hispanic and Black professionals, tend to approach
investments in minority firms more pragmatically than
do many MESBIC directors, who are usually senior
managers from sponsoring corporations. The latter
(50) often still think mainly in terms of the "social responsibility
approach" and thus seem to prefer deals that are
riskier and less attractive than normal investment criteria
would warrant. Such differences in viewpoint have produced
uneasiness among many minority staff members,
(55) who feel that minority entrepreneurs and businesses
should be judged by established business considerations.
These staff members believe their point of view is closer
to the original philosophy of MESBIC's and they are

concerned that, unless a more prudent course is followed,
MESBIC directors may revert to policies likely
to re-create the disappointing results of the original SBA
approach.

13. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
(A) The use of MESBIC's for aiding minority entrepreneurs seems to have greater potential for success than does the
original SBA approach.
(B) There is a crucial difference in point of view between the staff and directors of some MESBIC's.
(C) After initial problems with management and marketing, minority businesses have begun to expand at a steady
rate.
(D) Minority entrepreneurs wishing to form new businesses now have several equally successful federal programs
on which to rely.
(E) For the first time since 1960, large corporations are making significant contributions to the development of
minority businesses.


14. According to the passage, the MESBIC approach differs from the SBA approach in that MESBIC's
(A) seek federal contracts to provide marketsfor minority businesses
(B) encourage minority businesses to provide markets for other minority businesses
(C) attempt to maintain a specified rate of growth in the minority business sector
(D) rely on the participation of large corporations to finance minority businesses
(E) select minority businesses on the basis of their location


15. Which of the following does the author cite to support the conclusion that the results of the SBA program were
disappointing?
(A) The small number of new minority enterprises formed as a result of the program
(B) The small number of minority enterprises that took advantage of the management and technical assistance
offiered under the program
(C) The small percentage of the nation's business receipts earned by minority enterprises following the programs,
implementation.
(D) The small percentage of recipient minority enterprises that were able to repay federally guaranteed loans made
under the program
(E) The small number of minority enterprises that chose to participate in the program


16. Which of the following statements about the SBA program can be inferred from the passage?
(A) The maximum term for loans made to recipient businesses was 15 years.
(B) Business loans were considered to be more useful to recipient businesses than was management and technical
assistance.
(C) The anticipated failure rate for recipient businesses was significantly lower than the rate that actually resulted.
(D) Recipient businesses were encouraged to relocate to areas more favorable for business development.
(E) The capitalization needs of recipient businesses were assessed and then provided for adequately.


17. The author refers to the "financial and operating problems"(line 38 ) encountered by MESBIC's primarily in
order to
(A) broaden the scope of the discussion to include the legal considerations of funding MESBIC'S through
sponsoring companies
(B) call attention to the fact that MESBIC's must receive adequate funding in order to function effectively

(C) show that sponsoring companies were willing to invest only $500,000 of government-sponsored venture capital
in the original MESBIC's
(D) compare SBA and MESBIC limits on minimum funding
(E) refute suggestions that MESBIC's have been only marginally successful

18. The author's primary objective in the passage is to
(A) disprove the view that federal efforts to aid minority businesses have been ineffective
(B) explain how federal efforts to aid minority businesses have changed since the 1960's
(C) establish a direct link between the federal efforts to aid minority businesses made before the 1960's and those
made in the 1980's
(D) analyze the basis for the belief that job-specific experience is more useful to minority businesses than is general
management experience
(E) argue that the "social responsibility approach" to aiding minority businesses is superior to any other approach

RC 15.2

Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems.
First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is available
for publishing the results and preserving the sites
(5) once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose
that scientific archeological expeditions and governmental
authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites
and the publication of results. At the same time, they
would break the illegal excavator's grip on the market,
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal
activities.
(20) You might object that professionals excavate to
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient artifacts
are part of our global cultural heritage, which
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scientific
value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abundance---
more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered
in the future. There is not enough money even to
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked
pot when another was available whose provenance was
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the
professional archaeologist who excavated it?


7. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose
(A) an alternative to museum display of artifacts
(B) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession
(C) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such value
(D) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites
(E) a new system for cataloguing duplicate artifacts


8. The author implies that all of the following statements about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT:
(A) A market for such artifacts already exists.
(B) Such artifacts seldom have scientific value.
(C) There is likely to be a continuing supply of such artifacts.
(D) Museums are well supplied with examples of such artifacts.
(E) Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those already catalogued in museum collections.

9. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum basements?
(A) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts.
(B) Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage.
(C) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become separated from each other.
(D) Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in temperature and humidity.
(E) Such artifacts' often remain uncatalogued and thus cannot be located once they are put in storage.


10. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus (lines 31-34) to emphasize which of the following points?
(A) Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less valuable, although more rare, than royal seal impressions.
(B) Artifacts that are very similar to each other present cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists.
(C) Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and therefore could be sold, are available in large quantities.
(D) Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing large quantities of salable artifacts.
(E) Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are wide-spread, particularly on the island of Cyprus.


11. The author's argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation is
based on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts.
(B) The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise.
(C) Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts.
(D) Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only duplicate artifacts.
(E) Money gained from selling authenticated artifacts could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal excavators.


12. The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of his proposal?
(A) Museum officials will become unwilling to store artifacts.
(B) An oversupply of salable artifacts will result and the demand for them will fall.
(C) Artifacts that would have been displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors.
(D) Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply of artifacts for resale.
(E) Counterfeiting of artifacts will become more commonplace

RC 1

Social learning in animals is said to occur when direct or indirect social interaction facilitates the acquisition of a novel behavior. It usually takes the form of an experienced animal (the demonstrator) performing a behavior such that the native animal (the observer) subsequently expresses the same behavior sooner, or more completely, than it would have otherwise. One example of social learning is the acquisition of preferences for novel foods.

Some experiments have suggested that among mammals, social learning facilitates the identification of beneficial food items, but that among birds, social learning helps animals avoid toxic substances. For example, one study showed that when red-wing blackbirds observed others consuming a colored food or a food in a distinctly marked container and then becoming ill, they subsequently avoided food associated with that color or container. Another experiment showed that house sparrows consumed less red food after they observed others eating red food that was treated so as to be noxious. Studies on non-avian species have not produced similar results, leading researchers to speculate that avian social learning may be fundamentally different from that of mammals.

But Sherwin's recent experiments with domestic hens do not support the notion that avian social learning necessarily facilitates aversion to novel foods that are noxious or toxic. Even when demonstrator hens reacted with obvious disgust to a specific food, via vigorous head shaking and bill wiping, there was no evidence that observers subsequently avoided eating that food. Sherwin's research team speculated that ecological or social constraints during the evolution of this species might have resulted in there being little benefit from the social learning of unpalatability, for instance, selective pressures for this mode of learning would be reduced if the birds rarely encountered noxious or toxic food or rarely interacted after eating such food, or if the consequences of ingestion were minimal. In a related experiment the same researchers showed that if observer hens watched demonstrator hens react favorably to food of a particular color, then observer hens ate more food of that color than they ate of food of other colors. These results confirmed that avian species can develop preferences for palatable food through social learning.



1: The primary purpose of the passage is to discuss the
A: techniques used in certain experiments on social learning in birds
B: reasons for the differences between social learning in birds and in mammals
C: question of how social learning manifests itself in birds
D: basis for a widespread belief about a difference in behavior between birds and mammals
E: possible reasons why birds may or may not learn from each other in a particular way

2: According to the passage, which of the following is true of the experiments on domestic hens conducted by Sherwin's research team?
A: Only a small number of observer hens appeared to learn to avoid food that was demonstrated by other hens to be noxious.
B: Observer hens ingested food preferentially only after numerous instances of witnessing demonstrator hens preferentially ingest that type of food.
C: Observer hens appeared unable to recognize when demonstrator hens found a particular food especially palatable.
D: Observer hens appeared unable to recognize when demonstrator hens found a particular food especially palatable.
E: Demonstrator hens altered their behavior less obviously in response to noxious foods than in response to highly palatable foods.

 

3: It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements regarding the results of the recent experiments conducted by Sherwin's research team?
A: The experiments demonstrate that social learning in avian species facilitates the identification of noxious or toxic foods.
B: The experiments suggest that social learning has made avian species less adept than nonavian species at learning to prefer beneficial foods and avoid noxious and toxic foods.
C: The experiments undermine the notion that most avian species have evolved in environments where there is little benefit to the social learning of unpalatability.
D: The experiments suggest that the acquisition of food preferences in avian species is largely unaffected by social learning.
E: The experiments show that social learning in avian species can promote the preferential consumption of beneficial foods but do not support the claim that social learning in avian species promotes the avoidance of noxious or toxic foods.