Thursday 30 July 2015

FIB - 2 WORDS - 30th JULY

Question 1
Despite their initial fears, most environmentalists now concede that the arti􀀛cial reefs have had a largely _______ e􀀟ect on surrounding
ecosystems.
unfounded
benign
caustic
interminable
innocuous
plaintive

Question 2
Scholarship reductions and player defections notwithstanding, the new coach applied himself to rebuilding the program with such
_______ that the rest of the staff struggled to match his enthusiasm.
cessation
indifference
rhetoric
fervency
heedlessness
zeal

Question 3
After hours of practice and innumerable fruitless attempts to catch the balls, Allen was 􀀛nally forced to admit that he wasn't
sufficiently _______ to be a juggler.
sedate
lumbering
dexterous
implicit
adroit
awkward

Question 4
The cohesion of Alexander the Great's vast empire was _______; at his death, Alexander's lands were divided among his generals,
Ptolemy, Seleucus, and Antigonus the One-Eyed.
abiding
precarious
protracted
redoubled
renowned
tenuous

Question 5
His wife's icy stare and aloof demeanor told Johann unequivocally that his propitiatory gifts had failed to _______ her anger.
vilify
garner
exacerbate
aggravate
placate
appease

Question 6
By consuming _______ numbers of power bars, some athletes believe they will have proportionally greater amounts of endurance and
strength because of the energy-producing ingredients these products claim to contain.
scant
furtive
copious
solvent
measured
profuse

Question 7
The comprehensive bill, signed into law by the president late last week, was _______ 249 new regulations on the fishing industry.
elucidated by
rife with
deficient in
unencumbered by
replete with
exempted from

Question 8
The former employees started a blog that revealed the embarrassing quirks of the boss, an act which had _______ impact on the
company's CEO.
a virulent
an assuaging
a monumental
a discomfiting
a bolstering
a mortifying

Question 9
The late Samuel Huntington was well known for his _______ opinions on relations among di􀀟erent cultures; many of his ideas are still
passionately debated today.
zealous
pedantic
polemical
rhetorical
divisive
hegemonic

Question 10
The _______ plant life on the previously barren volcanic rock created by the Kilauea lava 􀀿ow is strong evidence that humans, too, will
one day be able to inhabit the area.
incipient
nascent
waning
fervent
flagging
static

Question 11
Regardless of the long-winded answers Michael consistently gave in class, his teachers remember him as _______ student, rather than a
garrulous one, because he generally kept to himself.
a taciturn
a voluble
an uncommunicative
a querulous
a disinterested
an eccentric

Question 12
For the cities at the foothills of the Rocky Mountains, where the shortage of rain often leaves wells and rivers empty, a winter without
liberal snowfall will mean a _______ of the run-off that normally provides fresh water in the summer months.
proliferation
conduit
paucity
surfeit
dearth
burgeoning

Question 13
Despite her father's endeavors to placate his daughter every time she had a grievance, the young girl was simply _______ complainer, and
so could always find something else that displeased her.
an inveterate
an impertinent
a plaintive
an oblique
a chronic
an abysmal

Question 14
Few want to believe that Lisa de Giocondo, the woman popularly believed to have been the model for da Vinci's Mona Lisa, was a(n)
_______ person and prefer instead to think that there is an enigma behind the celebrated smile.
dulcet
artless
comely
facile
inscrutable
ingenuous

Question 15
Though the futurist conceded that Apple's iPhone was a revolutionary device, she was adamant that it would not be immune to the
same forces that caused such previous "game changing" products as Ford's Model T and Sony's Walkman to be considered _______.
avant-garde
electronic
circuitous
antediluvian
superannuated
radical

Question 16
The results of a survey of movie-goers gainsaid the scholar's claim that the 􀀛lmmakers' intent would remain opaque to most viewers;
it seems the metaphors employed were rather _______.
perspicuous
abstruse
manifest
aesthetic
cryptic
recalcitrant

Question 17
To call the area _______ was perhaps hyperbolic; while it was quaint and abstracted from the modern life of nearby cities, the presence
of mining equipment was decidedly imposing.
germane
gentrified
aplomb
bucolic
rancorous
quiescent

Question 18
In an era in which mass media is but a thrall of its corporate masters, the amateurish _______ of commercials for local businesses provide
a tonic for the slick homogeneity of most advertising.
amalgamations
eccentricities
synergies
conglomerations
syllogisms
idiosyncrasies

Question 19
Despite having earned over two hundred million dollars during his career, the boxer's _______ spending and bad investments left him
insolvent within a few years of retirement.
parsimonious
penurious
perfidious
prodigal
profligate
pugnacious

Question 20
When a Roman emperor visited a provincial city, an important part of the ceremony of receptio was the delivery of _______, in which a
When a Roman emperor visited a provincial city, an important part of the ceremony of receptio was the delivery of _______, in which a
local poet or orator would lavish praise on the imperial visitor.
a compendium
an elegy
an encomium
a jeremiad
a philippic
a panegyric

1993 CAT VARC SOLUTIONS

1993 CAT VARC SOLUTIONS

1.Ans (d)  B. starts at the beginning of Indian industrialization, A. elaborates on it, C. talks about the scenario today, D. states
a common element between the beginning and today. The word 'However' in D makes it the conclusive statement
AC is mandatory pair. Thus option D (BACD) is the best option.

2.Ans (a)  BA or AB is a mandatory pair as both of them answer the question asked in the first sentence. Thus, we are left
with tow options A and C. However, A is the last sentence in the group as it summarizes the efforts put by the tax
authorities. Hence, A is the answer.

3.Ans (a)  C. makes a comparison between competition and justice. D. states what the choice is 'not between', and B. by
using 'rather' shows that it should follow D. A continues with the idea and leads to 6. Also DB is a mandatory pair
and hence, we are left with only one option i.e. A.

4.Ans (a)  A. uses 'thus' to show the effect of the disparities in Yugoslavia mentioned in B. and C. It should thus follow the
two. D. uses the phrase 'will also'…, thus showing that it should follow A.

5.Ans (b)  The use of 'these measures' in A. refers to the measures stated in 1., so it should be the first sentence in the series.
B talks about the objectives of these measures and C. and D. elaborate on the idea.

6.Ans (a)  D. introduces the problem related to petroleum products, A. presents statistics to support it. B. talks about
electricity, an idea which is continued in 6., so B. should be the last sentence in the series.

7.Ans (b)  A. starts at the beginning of the last 45 years, B. states how external powers tried to control the region, D.
continues with the idea. C. talks about supply of arms to Pakistan, an idea that is continued in 6.

8.Ans (c)  C. states a cause for the problem introduced in 1. B. starts with 'added to this', showing that it should follow C. A.
introduces a way out of the situation and 6. analyses the solution. Therefore A. should precede 6.

9.Ans (c)  A. introduces us to Rumford's experiments, D. tells us about his observations. C. introduces the term 'caloric', B.
explains the term.

10.Ans (d)  C. introduces a controversy regarding 'recognition', A. states an aspect of that controversy, B. talks about what
happens when an object is encountered and D. talks about what happens when the same object is countered again.
BD is a mandatory pair and D has to be the sentence that makes a pair with sentence 6.

11.Ans (a)  D. continues with the idea introduced in 1. C. states an explanation about the phenomenon, B. refers to this
explanation and A. states how it was substantiated. Also A will be the last sentence as it forms a mandatory pair
with sentence 6.

12.Ans (a)  There are two mandatory pairs in the questions. BD and A6. B. talks about the beginning of evolution changes, D.
about adaptations, C. about further improvements as well as about extinctions, and A. about the approach towards
modern lines.

13.Ans (c A. states that what has been predicted annually, according to 1. has not happened. B., and then D., talk about events
that led ) to such a prediction. The use of 'then' in D. shows that it should follow B. C. makes a statement that is
analysed in 6.

14.Ans (c)  C. introduces the topic of the passage, A. and D. explain it, B. presents the Economists' view of the whole idea.

15.Ans (a)  A. introduces the view of realists regarding reality, B. refers to 'this reality' and should follow A. C. refers to the
realists again by using 'they' and should follow A. and B. D. presents the author's view about the given position.

16.Ans (d)  A. introduces 'changes in demands' as the topic sentence, D. gives some factors leading to the changes, C.
elaborates on them and B. shows the effect of some more factors on the same issue.

17.Ans (c)  B. talks about the positive aspect of India's technological front, A. continues with the same, C. introduces the other
side of the issue by using 'but' and D. contradicts C. by giving certain examples.

18.Ans (a)  D. introduces the topic of destruction of enemy kingdom by conquerors, C. uses the pronoun 'he' thus should
follow D., B. and A. present more methods adopted by the conqueror in destroying the enemy.

19.Ans (b)  C. introduces the idea of various industries offering services through millions of firms, A. states that the individual
firms vary in size, D. talks about other variations and B. about the variations in policies etc. within the firms.

20.Ans (a)  The color of the Norwegian's house is yellow.

21.Ans (b)  Milk is drunk by the Englishman.

22. b The Norwegian drinks Cocoa

23.Ans (d)  The only statement that is not true is (d), as the Italian lives in house No. 2 and the Spaniard lives in house no. 4,
which are not next to each other.

Q24-27: The best way to solve these kinds of question is to assume that one of the statements is either true or false and
hence figure out whether there is consistence in what everyone is saying.
24.Ans (b)  Let us assume that John's first statement is true. So his second statement must be false. This implies that Mathew
did it. This makes Mathew's first statement false. So the second statement has to be true. This implies that Krishna
didn't do it. So Krishna's first statement is true and his second statement is false. Since all the statements are
consistent with each other, the assumption made by us should be the correct one. So it is Mathew who stole the
boat.

25.Ans (b)  The key here are the statements made by Koik. Since we know that he is wearing a cap, if his first statement is
false, then his second statement cannot be true. So his first statement is true and his second statement is false. This
implies that Koik is the priest. This makes Lony's second statement false and so his first statement true. So Lony is
Koik's son. This makes Mirna's second statement false and so his first statement true. So Lony's father is a pilot.
Thus Koik is the pilot (note that he is also the priest).

26.Ans (a)  The first statement of Ram is obviously false, as he is saying that he never speaks to a stranger, when he actually is.
So he must be new to those parts. This makes the second statement of Lila false. So he should be married to Ram.
This makes the first statement of Ram false. So the left road should take you to the village.

27.Ans (b)  If you were observe Charle's statement carefully you will figure out that his first statement is true and second
statement is false. For instance if his first statement were to be false, then his second statement cannot be true.
There would be inconsistency in what he is talking. So, Charles is not the chief. This makes Bobby's second
statement false and first statement true. So Bobby is Amar's father and hence Amar's first statement is false. So his
second statement must be true. This implies that the chief is wearing the red shirt. So Bobby is the chief.

28.Ans (b)  What follows the blank shows that what has been happening till now has led to some undesirable things and hence
a change is now coming in. b. is the only choice that shows what wrong has happened.

29.Ans (c)  c. suggests that the strategy adopted by some people is not very effective, and the idea is continued with in the
passage when the author refers to it as 'this fallacy'.

30.Ans (b)  What follows the blank shows that the author is against the argument projected in the beginning of the passage. B.
is the only choice which would support this.

31.Ans (a)  The passage begins with the situation of two people on two different sides of the issue. Each gets a chance to argue
his or her position and after listening to each other they decide whether they wish to change their position or not.
The use of 'then' after the blank shows that some action has taken place before it, and a. is the only choice showing
an action.

32.Ans (d)  A brand is a type of product and a sports car is a type of an automobile.

33.Ans (b)  A gourmet is an expert on food and a connoisseur is an expert on art.

34. a North is the opposite of south and black of white.
35.Ans (d)  Drought and famine are synonyms as are training and skill.

36.Ans (a)  Nuts and bolts are used together as a phrase just as nitty-gritty are also used together.

37.Ans (b)  Salty is the adjective for the noun 'salt'. Bovine is the adjective for the noun 'cow'.

38.Ans (a)  Lack of being just is the defining characteristic of arbitrary just as lack of having order is a characteristic of chaos.

39.Ans (d)  A crime leads to punishment, just as a homicide leads to a penalty.

40.Ans (c)  Stratosphere is a layer of atmosphere, jet is a kind of an aircraft.

41.Ans (c)  The first word of both the pairs implies 'to cut or break up something into parts' while the second word in both
means 'bringing things together'.

42.Ans (d)  All others relate to payments made for something.

43.Ans (d)  All others are related to horses.

44.Ans (d)  All others are synonyms.

45.Ans (d)  All others are nouns, while write is a verb.

46.Ans (c)  All others are synonyms.

47.Ans (d)  The correct tag question should use the same auxiliary verb as in the main clause, hence the correct tag question
here would be, 'did you?'.

48.Ans (b)  The correct idiomatic usage is 'prevented someone from leaving'.

49.Ans (d)  The 'documents' are a plural noun, so should be referred to by them and not it.

50.Ans (a)  Here who is acting as an object for the verb invited, hence should be replaced by 'whom'.

1993 CAT VARC

Q1 to 13 : Arrange the sentences A, B, C, and D from a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6.

1.
1. India's experience of industrialization is characteristic of the difficulties faced by a newly independent developing country.

A. In 1947, India was undoubtedly an under – developed country with one of the lowest per capita incomes in the world.
B. Indian industrialization was the result of a conscious deliberate policy of growth by an indigenous political elite.
C. Today India ranks fifth in the international comity of nations if measured in terms of purchasing power.
D. Even today however, the benefits of Indian industrialization since independence have not reached the masses.
6. Industrialization in India has been a limited success; one more example of growth without development.

(a) CDAB
(b) DCBA
(c) CABD
(d) BACD

2.
1. What does the state do in a country where tax is very low?

A. It tries to spy upon the taxpayers.
B. It investigates income sources and spending patterns.
C. Exactly what the tax authority tries to do now even if inconsistently.
D. It could also encourage people to denounce to the tax authorities any conspicuously prosperous neighbours who may be suspected of not paying their taxes properly.
6. The ultimate solution would be an Orwellian System.

(a) BADC
(b) DBAC
(c) ABCD
(d) DCBA

3.
1. It is significant that one of the most common objections to competition is that it is blind.

A. This is important because in a system of free enterprise based on private property chances are not equal and there is
indeed a strong case for reducing the inequality of opportunity.
B. Rather it is a choice between a system where it is the will of few persons that decides who is to get what and one where
it depends at least partly, on the ability and the enterprise of the people concerned.
C. Although competition and justice may have little else in common, it is as much a commendation of competition as of justice that it is no respecter of persons.
D. The choice today is not between a system in which everybody will get what he deserves according to some universal standard and one where individuals' shares are determined by chance of goodwill.
6. The fact that opportunities open to the poor in a competitive society are much more restricted than those open to the rich, does not make it less true that in such a society the poor are more free than a person commanding much greater material comfort in a different type of society.

(a) CDBA
(b) DCBA
(c) ABCD
(d) BADC

4.
1. The fragile Yugoslav state has an uncertain future.

A. Thus, there will surely be chaos and uncertainty if the people fail to settle their differences.
B. Sharp ideological differences already exist in the country.
C. Ethnic, regional, linguistic and material disparities are profound.
D. The country will also lose the excellent reputation it enjoyed in the international arena.
6. At worst, it will once more become vulnerable to international conspiracy and intrigue.

(a) BCAD
(b) ADCB
(c) ACBD
(d) DBCA

5.
1. The New Economic Policy comprises the various policy measures and changes introduced since July 1991.

A. There is a common thread running through all these measures.
B. The objective is simple to improve the efficiency of the system.
C. The regulator mechanism involving multitude of controls has fragmented the capacity and reduced competition even in the private sector.
D. The thrust of the new policy is towards creating a more competitive environment as a means to improving the productivity and efficiency of the economy.
6. This is to be achieved by removing the banners and restrictions on the entry and growth of firms.

(a) DCAB
(b) ABCD
(c) BDAC
(d) CDBA

6.
1. Commercial energy consumption shows an increasing trend and poses the major challenge for the future.

A. The demand, for petroleum, during 1996 – 97 and 2006 – 07 is anticipated to be 81 million tonnes and 125 million tonnes respectively.
B. According to the projections of the 14th Power Survey Committee Report, the electricity generation requirements from utilities will be about 416 billion units by 1996 – 97 and 825 billion units by 2006 – 07.
C. The production of coal should reach 303 million tonnes by 1996 – 97 to achieve Plan targets and 460 million tonnes by 2006 – 07.
D. The demand for petroleum products has already outstripped indigenous production.
6. Electricity is going to play a major role in the development of infrastructural facilities.

(a) DACB
(b) CADB
(c) BADC
(d) ABCD

7.
1. The necessity for regional integration in South Asia is underlined by the very history of the last 45 years since the liquidation of the British Empire in this part of the world.

A. After the partition of the Indian Subcontinent, Pakistan was formed in that very area which the imperial powers had always marked out as the potential base for operations against the Russian power in Central Asia.
B. Because of the disunity and ill-will among the South Asian neighbours, particular India and Pakistan, great powers from outside the area could meddle into their affairs and thereby keep neighbours apart.
C. It needs to be added that it was the bountiful supply of sophisticated arms that emboldened Pakistan to go for warlike bellicosity towards India.
D. As a part of the cold war strategy of the US, Pakistan was sucked into Washington's military alliance spreading over the years.
6. Internally too, it was the massive induction of American arms into Pakistan which empowered the military junta of that country to stuff out the civilian government and destroy democracy in Pakistan.

(a) ACBD
(b) ABDC
(c) CBAD
(d) DCAB

8.
1. The success of any unit in a competitive environment depends on prudent management sources.

A. In this context it would have been more appropriate if the concept of accelerated depreciation, together with additional incentives towards capital allowances for recouping a portion of the cost of replacements out of the current generations, had been accepted.
B. Added to this are negligible retention of profits because of inadequate capital allowances and artificial disallowance's of genuine outflows.
C. One significant cause for poor generation of surpluses is the high cost of capital and its servicing cost.
D. The lack of a mechanism in India tax laws for quick recovery of capital costs has not received its due attention.
6. While this may apparently look costly from the point of view of the exchequer, the ultimate cost of the Government and the community in the form of losses suffered through poor viability will be prohibitive.

(a) ADBC
(b) BCDA
(c) CBDA
(d) DBAC

9.
1. Count Rumford is perhaps best known for his observations on the nature of heat.

A. He undertook several experiments in order to test the theories of the origin of frictional heat.
B. According to the calorists, the heat was produced by the "caloric" squeezed out of he chips in the process of separating them from the larger pieces of metal.
C. Lavoisier had introduced the term "caloric" for the weightless substance heat, and had included it among the chemical elements, along with carbon, nitrogen and oxygen.
D. In the munitions factory in Munich, Rumford noticed that a considerable degree of heat developed in a brass gun while it was being bored.
6. Rumford could not believe that the big amount of heat generated could have come from the small amount of dust created.

(a) ABCD
(b) CBDA
(c) ADCB
(d) CDAB

10.
1. Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving of memories.

A. Psychologists of the Gestalt School maintain that objects are recognised as a whole in a procedure.
B. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the brain's memory system that constitutes an internal representation of the viewed object.
C. Controversy surrounds the question of whether recognition is a single one-step procedure or a serial step-by-step one.
D. When an object is encountered again, it is matched with its internal recognition and thereby recognised.
6. The internal representation is matched with the retinal image in a single operation.

(a) DBAC
(b) DCAB
(c) BDCA
(d) CABD

11.
1. The idea of sea-floor spreading actually preceded the theory of plate tectonics.

A. The hypothesis was soon substantiated by the discovery that periodic reversals of the earth's magnetic field are recorded in the oceanic crust.
B. In its original version, it described the creation and destruction of ocean floor, but it did not specify rigid lithospheric plates.
C. An explanation of this process devised by F.J. Vine and D.H. Mathews of Princeton is now generally accepted.
D. The sea-floor spreading hypothesis was formulated chiefly by Harry H. Hess of Princeton University in the early 1960's.
6. As magma rises under the mid-ocean, ferromagnetic minerals in the magma become magnetised in the direction of the geomagnetic field.

(a) DCBA
(b) ABDC
(c) CBDA
(d) DBAC

12.
1. The history of mammals dates back at least to Triassic time.

A. Miocene and Pliocene time was marked by culmination of several groups and continued approach towards modern characters.
B. Development was retarded, however, until the sudden acceleration of evolutional change that occurred in the oldest Paleocene.
C. In the Oligocene Epoch, there was further improvement, with appearance of some new lines and extinction of others.
D. This led in Eocene time to increase in average size, larger mental capacity, and special adaptations for different modes of life.
6. The peak of the career of mammals in variety and average large size was attained in this epoch.

(a) BDCA
(b) ACDB
(c) BCDA
(d) ACBD

13.
1. The death of cinema has been predicted annually.

A. It hasn't happened.
B. It was said that the television would kill it off and indeed audiences plummeted reaching a low in 1984.
C. Film has enjoyed a renaissance, and audiences are now roughly double of what they were a decade ago.
D. Then the home computer became the projected nemesis, followed by satellite television.
6. Why? Probably because, even in the most atomized of societies, we human beings feel the need to share our fantasies and our excitement.

(a) CADB
(b) BDAC
(c) ABDC
(d) DABC

Q14 to 19: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, from a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentence from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

14.
A. In emission trading, the government fixes the total amount of pollution that is acceptable to maintain a desired level of air quality.
B. Economists argue this approach makes air pollution control more cost – effective than the current practice of fixing air
pollution standards and expecting all companies to pollute below these standards.
C. USA uses emission trading to control air pollution.
D. It then distributes emission permits to all companies in the region, which add up to the overall acceptable level of emission.

(a) BADC
(b) ACDB
(c) CADB
(d) DBAC

15.
A. Realists believe that there is an objective reality "out there" independent of ourselves.
B. This reality exists solely by virtue of how the world is, and it is in principle discoverable by application of the methods of science.
C. They believe in the possibility of determining whether or not a theory is indeed really true or false.
D. I think it is fair to say that this is the position to which most working scientists subscribe.

(a) ABCD
(b) CDBA
(c) DCBA
(d) BCAD

16.
A. All levels of demand, whether individual, aggregate, local, national, or international are subject to change.
B. At the same time, science and technology add new dimensions to products, their uses, and the methods used to market them.
C. Aggregate demand fluctuates with changes in the level of business activity, GNP, and national income.
D. The demands of individuals tend to vary with changing needs and rising income.

(a) CBDA
(b) DCAB
(c) BCAD
(d) ADCB

17.
A. There is a strong manufacturing base for a variety of products.
B. India has come a long way on the technology front.
C. But the technology adopted has been largely of foreign origin.
D. There are however areas such as atomic energy, space, agriculture, and defense where significant strides have been made in evolving relevant technologies within the country.

(a) ADCB
(b) DBAC
(c) BACD
(d) CBAD

18.
A. Secret persons shall strike with weapons, fire or poison.
B. Clans mutually supporting each other shall be made to strike at the weak points.
C. He shall destroy their caravans, herds, forests and troop reinforcements.
D. The conqueror shall cause enemy kingdom to be destroyed by neighboring kings, jungle tribes, pretenders or unjustly treated princes.

(a) DCBA
(b) ABCD
(c) BDCA
(d) ADCB

19.
A. The individual companies vary in size, from the corner grocery to the industrial giant.
B. Policies and management methods within firms range from formal well-planned organization and controls to slipshod day-to-day operations.
C. Various industries offer a wide array of products or services through millions of firms largely independent of each other.
D. Variation in the form of ownership contributes to diversity in capital investment, volume of business, and financial structure.

(a) DBCA
(b) CADB
(c) BADC
(d) ADCB

Q20 to 23: Read the text and the numbered statements carefully and answer the questions given at the end.

Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:

The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.

20. The color of the Norwegian's house is

(a) yellow
(b) white
(c) blue
(d) red

21. Milk is drunk by

(a) Norwegian
(b) English
(c) Italian
(d) None of the above

22. The Norwegian drinks

(a) milk
(b) cocoa
(c) tea
(d) fruit juice.

23. Which of he following is not true?

(a) Milk is drunk in the red house.
(b) The Italian lives in the blue house.
(c) The Spaniard lives in a corner house.
(d) The Italian lives next to the Spania

Q24 to 27 : Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.

"Kya – Kya" is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of "Kya – Kya" always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.

24. You find that your boat is stolen. You question three inhabitants of the island and they reply as follows:

John says, "I didn't do it. Mathew didn't do it."
Mathew says. "I didn't do it. Krishna didn't do it."
Krishna says. "I didn't do it. I don't know who did it."

Who stole your boat?

(a) John
(b) Mathew
(c) Krishna
(d) None of them

25. There is only one pilot on the island. You interview three men, Koik, Lony and Mirna. You also notice that Koik is wearing a cap.

Mirna says, "Lony's father is the pilot. Lony is not the priest's son."
Koik says, "I am the priest. On this island, only priests can wear caps."
Lony says says, I am the priest's son. Koik is not the priest."

Which of the following is true?

(a) Lony is not Koik's son.
(b) Koik is the pilot.
(c) Mirna is the pilot.
(d) Lony is the priest.

26. You are walking on the road and come to a fork. You ask the inhabitants Ram, Laxman and Lila. "which road will take me to the village?"

Ram says, "I never speak to strangers, I am new to these parts."
Laxman says, "I am married to Lila. Take the left road."
Lila says, "I am married to Ram, He is not new to this place."

Which of the following is true?

(a) Left road takes you to the village.
(b) Right road takes you to the village.
(c) Lila is married to Laxman.
(d) None of these.

27. You want to speak to the chief of the village. You question three inhabitants. Amar, Bobby and Charles. Only Bobby's is wearing a red shirt."

Amar says. "I am not Bobby's son. The chief wears a red shirt."
Bobby says, "I am Amar's father, Charles is the chief."
Charles says, "The chief is one among us. I am the chief."

Who is the chief?

(a) Amar
(b) Bobby
(c) Charles
(d) None of them

Q28 to 31: Each question is a logical sequence of statements with a missing link, the location of which is shown parenthetically. From the four choices available you are required to choose the one which best fits the sequence logically.

28. Many of us live one-eyed lives. We rely largely on the eye of the mind to form our images of reality. It is a mechanical world based on fact and reason. (_______). So today more and more of us are opening the other eye, the eye of the heart, looking for realities to which the mind's eye is blind. This is a world warmed and transformed by the power of love, a vision of community beyond the mind's capacity to see. Either eye alone is not enough. We need "wholesight", a vision of the world in which mind and heart unite.

(a) It had lead to unprecedented scientific growth and material well – being.
(b) In the nuclear age, our mind-made world has been found flawed and dangerous, even lethal,
(c) The question is irrelevant, whether or not they can be seen and reasoned.
(d) We have built our lives based on it because it seemed predictable and safe.

29. People arguing for a position have been known to cast the opposite in an unnecessarily feeble light. (______). People who indulge in this fallacy may be fearful or ignorant of a strong counter argument. Detecting this fallacy often depends on having already heard a better refutation, or having information with which to construct one.

(a) Casting the opposite as weaker than it really is, is a very effective strategy.
(b) This portrayal of a refutation as weaker than it really is, is a sure way of proving your point.
(c) Casting the opposite as weaker than it really is, is not a very effective strategy.
(d) This portrayal of refutation as weaker than it really is, is unwarranted.

30. The question of what rights animals should enjoy is a vexatious one, Hundreds of millions of animals are put to death for human use each year. Contrariwise, it can be argued that slowing down scientific research would retard discovery of antidotes to diseases such as cancer which kill humans and animals alike. (_________). What if super intelligent beings from Alpha Centauri landed on earth and decided to use us for their experiments, arguing that they could save far more of their and our lives by so doing?

(a) It will benefit both in the long run.
(b) Is the argument truly fair to animals?
(c) But the progress of human civilization cannot be made contingent on some hypothetical rights of animals.
(d) There is no question of equating human rights with those of animals.

31. A deliberation is a form of discussion in which two people begin on different sides of an issue. (_______) Then each decides, in the light of the other argument whether to adopt the other position, to change his or her position somewhat, or to maintain the same position. Both sides realize that to modify one's position is not to lose; the point is to get closer to the truth of the matter.

(a) Each person argues his or her position most sincerely.
(b) The prerequisite for deliberation to be productive is that persons involved must keep an open mind.
(c) The purpose is to resolve the issue to the satisfaction of both parties.
(d) The trick is to state your viewpoint from a position of strength.

Q32 to 41: Each of these questions has a pair of CAPITALIZED words followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair.

32. BRAND : PRODUCT

(a) Dalda : Rath
(b) Aircraft : Flying Machine
(c) Shoes : Reebok
(d) Sports car : Automobiles

33. FOOD : GOURMET

(a) Book : Critic
(b) Art : Connoisseur
(c) Sports : Fans
(d) Craft : Skill

34. NORTH : SOUTH

(a) Black : White
(b) Yellow : orange
(c) Red : Maroon
(d) Red : Indigo

35. DROUGHT : FAMINE

(a) Poverty : Plenty
(b) Drip : Fluid
(c) Camera : Film
(d) Training : Skill

36. NUTS : BOLTS

(a) Nitty : Gritty
(b) Bare : Feet
(c) Naked : Clothes
(d) Hard : Soft

37. SALT : SALTY

(a) Sweet : Sugar
(b) Cow : Bovine
(c) Bitter : Sour
(d) Taste : Flavor

38. JUST : ARBITRARY

(a) Order : Chaos
(b) Bare : Clothed
(c) Hope : Surprise
(d) Proper : Impropr

39. CRIME : PUNISHMENT

(a) Lawyer : Judge
(b) Court : Room
(b) Accused : Defendant
(d) Homicide : Penalty

40. ATMOSPHERE : STRATOSPHERE

(a) Nimbus : Cloud
(b) Instrument : Calibration
(c) Aircraft : Jet
(d) Climate : Rain

41. DIVIDE : UNITE

(a) Split : Apart
(b) Marriage : Divorce
(b) Fission : Fusion
(d) Chasm : Gap

Q42 to 46: Each of the following questions has four items. Mark the one that does not belong to this group.

42.
(a) Invoice
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Octroi
(d) Quotation

43.
(a) Equestrian
(b) Neigh
(c) Derby
(d) Bark

44
(a) Apt
(b) Relevant
(c) Appropriate
(d) Adept

45.
(a) Ring
(b) Shoulder
(c) Finger
(d) Write

46.
(a) Abstract
(b) Conceptual
(c) Material
(d) Idealist

Q47 to 50 : Each question is a sentence broken into four parts. Select that part which has an error.

47.
(a) You did not wait
(b) for us before you
(c) went to meet him.
(d) Isn't it?

48.
(a) The police have prevented
(b) Rajan in leaving the
(c) city without informing them
(d) two days in advance.

49.
(a) I would have
(b) given you the
(c) documents yesterday if
(d) you had asked for it.

50.
(a) Who have you
(b) invited for the lecture
(c) on astrophysics
(d) this evening?

FIB - 30th JULY - SOLUTIONS

Answers

76. d. To covet (v.) is to wish or long for; to feel immoderate desire for
that which belongs to another.
77. d. A ravine (n.) is a deep narrow canyon.
78. a. Staid (adj.) means of a steady and sober character; prudently
reserved and colorless.
79. b. Nimble (adj.) is quick and light in movement, to be agile.
80. d. A gamut (n.) is an entire range or a whole series.
81. e. To loll (v.) is to lean, recline, or act lazily or indolently; lounge.
82. a. Vainglory (n.) means excessive, pretentious, and demonstrative
vanity.
83. e. Mordant (adj.) means bitingly sarcastic or harshly caustic.
84. a. An advocate (n.) is one who argues for a cause, a supporter or
defender; one who pleads on another's behalf.
85. a. To relent (v.) means to yield or comply.
86. c. To cow (v.) is to intimidate, frighten with threats or show of
force.
87. c. Torpor (n.) means extreme sluggishness; lethargy or apathy;
dullness.
88. e. Primal (adj.) means primary, the first in order or the original;
primitive.
89. e. A garrison (n.) is a fort or outpost where troops are stationed;
any military post.


90. e. Amenable (adj.) means disposed or willing to comply; responsive,
willing; responsible to a higher authority, accountable.
91. c. To list (v.) (related to a vessel) is to incline or to cause to lean to
one side.
92. b. Verdant (adj.) means green with vegetation.
93. c. To maltreat (v.) means to treat poorly; abuse.
94. d. A quirt (n.) is a riding whip with a short handle and braided
rawhide leash.
95. d. To extricate (v.) is to release from an entanglement or difficulty,
disengage.
96. b. The terminus (n) is the final point or goal; the final stop on a
transportation line.
97. d. To prosper (v.) means to be successful.
98. b. Gelid (adj.) means icy or extremely cold; possessing a cold or
unfriendly manner.
99. a. Loquacity (n.) is talkativeness; the state of continual talking.

FIB - 30th JULY

76. Zachary was doomed to a miserable life, for no matter how much
he had, he always ______ the possessions of others.
a. protracted
b. exalted
c. engendered
d. coveted
e. filibustered

77. Sheila's grueling hike included passing through numerous ______.
a. terrariums
b. neoprene
c. jurisdictions
d. ravines
e. belfries

78. The college professor was known on campus as a ______
character—bland but harmless and noble in his ideals.
a. staid
b. stagnant
c. auspicious
d. sterile
e. dogmatic

79. Because he was so ______, the athlete was able to complete the
obstacle course in record time.
a. belligerent
b. nimble
c. demure
d. volatile
e. speculative

80. The toy store's extensive inventory offered a ______ of toys from
baby items to video games for teenagers.
a. manifold
b. lexicon
c. burrow
d. gamut
e. motif

81. With sunscreen and a good book, April ______ by the pool in her
lounge chair while the children swam.
a. ensconced
b. sustained
c. expelled
d. transcended
e. lolled

82. NaQuan had a terrible habit of boasting so much about his
smallest accomplishments that his ______ became renowned
throughout the small college campus.
a. vainglory
b. timidity
c. diffidence
d. tempestuousness
e. mockery
83. Only a small number of people in the audience laughed at the
comic's ______ sense of humor, while the rest found him to be too
sarcastic.
a. consequential
b. avaricious
c. venturous
d. dauntless
e. mordant

84. He has long been a(n) ______ of year-round school, believing it
would significantly improve learning and ease the burden on
working parents.
a. advocate
b. levity
c. detractor
d. epiphany
e. connoisseur

85. Tired of hearing the child whine for more candy, the babysitter
finally ______ and offered him a piece of chocolate.
a. relented
b. abated
c. rendered
d. placated
e. enumerated

86. Dogs growl and show their teeth in an attempt to ______ the
animal or person they perceive as a threat.
a. bolster
b. waylay
c. cow
d. exacerbate
e. appease

87. In biology class, Sabine observed the slug's ______, its barely
discernible movement in the tank.
a. parody
b. prescience
c. torpor
d. insight
e. vigor

88. The ______ instinct of a watchdog is to attack strangers who enter
its home.
a. judicious
b. intimate
c. pragmatic
d. melancholy
e. primal

89. The battalion's ______ was a well-fortified structure near the
enemy lines.
a. labyrinth
b. summary
c. villa
d. vinculum
e. garrison

90. Much to my surprise, my teenage daughter was ______ to the idea
of going out with me on Friday night instead of with her friends.
a. contrite
b. impartial
c. partisan
d. deferential
e. amenable

91. The enormous waves forced the lobster boat to ______ heavily to
the starboard side, causing crates of lobsters to topple and fall into
the ocean.
a. trifle
b. degenerate
c. list
d. expedite
e. disseminate


92. Walking through the ______ forest in spring was a welcome escape
from the cold, gray winter we had spent in the city.
a. pliant
b. verdant
c. factious
d. bland
e. innocuous


93. Nina called the humane society when she saw her neighbor ______
his dog.
a. mandate
b. forebode
c. maltreat
d. stipulate
e. peruse


94. Meredith used the ______ to steer the horse and keep him in line.
a. jolt
b. bristle
c. chine
d. quirt
e. hearth


95. Oliver was unable to ______ himself from the difficulties he had
caused by forging the documents.
a. reprove
b. pique
c. oust
d. extricate
e. broach



96. The ______ of our expedition was still so far away that I felt we
would never get there.
a. nadir
b. terminus
c. speculation
d. apex
e. dungeon


97. If he expected to ______ as a doctor, Lou knew he would have to
study hard in medical school and work long hours to gain
experience and skill.
a. perpetrate
b. palliate
c. palpitate
d. prosper
e. mediate


98. Doc Wilson grew up in Florida and was not prepared to face the
______ climate of the Alaskan winter.
a. freshwater
b. gelid
c. compendious
d. subsidiary
e. improvident


99. Marvin's ______ prevented him from finishing his work and was
evidenced in his large phone bills.
a. loquacity
b. heroism
c. decadence
d. depreciation
e. rescission

Wednesday 29 July 2015

Sentence Equivalence - 29th July - SOLUTIONS

Answers:

1.      DE

2.      BD

3.      AE

4.      BD

5.      CE

6.      AD

7.      BE

8.      CD

9.      AC

10.  CD

11.  BC

12.  AD

13.  BE

14.  CD

15.  AD

16.  CD

17.  AE

18.  CE

19.  AB

20.  CE

21.  BE

22.  CD

23.  AD

24.  BE

25.  CD

26.  BD

27.  CE

28.  BD

29.  AE

30.  BC

31.  CE

32.  CD

33.  AF

34.  BD

35.  EF

36.  AC

37.  CF

38.  DE

39.  AD

40.  BF

41.  AB

42.  AE

43.  BC

44.  BE

45.  CE

46.  DF

47.  DE

48.  BE

49.  AF

50.  BD

51.  CF

52.  BC

53.  AD

54.  BE

55.  CF

56.  AF

57.  BE

58.  AB

59.  DE

60.  BD

61.  DE

62.  AF

63.  BD

64.  CF

65.  BE

66.  AF

67.  BC

68.  AC

69.  BE

70.  CD

71.  CF

72.  AC

73.  AF

74.  AF

75.  DE

76.  CE

77.  DE

78.  BF

79.  BC

80.  CE

81.  AD