Monday 14 November 2016

CR QUESTIONS

31. Which of the following most logically completes the argument?
Ferber's syndrome, a viral disease that frequently affects cattle, is transmitted to these animals through infected
feed. Even though chickens commercially raised for meat are often fed the type of feed identified as the source
of infection in cattle, Ferber's syndrome is only rarely observed in chickens. This fact, however, does not
indicate that most chickens are immune to the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome, since .
(A) chickens and cattle are not the only kinds of farm animal that are typically fed the type of feed liable to be
contaminated with the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome
(B) Ferber's syndrome has been found in animals that have not been fed the type of feed liable to be
contaminated with the virus that can cause the disease
(C) resistance to some infectious organisms such as the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome can be acquired
by exposure to a closely related infectious organism
(D) chickens and cattle take more than a year to show symptoms of Ferber's syndrome, and chickens
commercially raised for meat, unlike cattle, are generally brought to market during the first year of life
(E) the type of feed liable to be infected with the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome generally constitutes a
larger proportion of the diet of commercially raised chickens than of commercially raised cattle


32. Last year the rate of inflation was 1.2 percent, but for the current year it has been 4 percent. We can conclude
that inflation is on an upward trend and the rate will be still higher next year.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?
(A) The inflation figures were computed on the basis of a representative sample of economic data rather than
all of the available data.
(B) Last year a dip in oil prices brought inflation temporarily below its recent stable annual level of 4 percent.
(C) Increases in the pay of some workers are tied to the level of inflation, and at an inflation rate of 4 percent
or above, these pay raises constitute a force causing further inflation.
(D) The 1.2 percent rate of inflation last year represented a 10-year low.
(E) Government intervention cannot affect the rate of inflation to any significant degree.

33. Which of the following most logically completes the argument below?
Although the number of large artificial satellites orbiting the Earth is small compared to the number of small
pieces of debris in orbit, the large satellites interfere more seriously with telescope observations because of the
strong reflections they produce. Because many of those large satellites have ceased to function, the proposal
has recently been made to eliminate interference from nonfunctioning satellites by exploding them in space.
This proposal, however, is ill conceived, since .
(A) many nonfunctioning satellites remain in orbit for years
(B) for satellites that have ceased to function, repairing them while they are in orbit would be prohibitively
expensive
(C) there are no known previous instances of satellites' having been exploded on purpose
(D) the only way to make telescope observations without any interference from debris in orbit is to use
telescopes launched into extremely high orbits around the Earth
(E) a greatly increased number of small particles in Earth's orbit would result in a blanket of reflections that
would make certain valuable telescope observations impossible


34. Thyrian lawmaker: Thyria's Cheese Importation Board inspects all cheese shipments to Thyria and rejects
shipments not meeting specified standards. Yet only 1 percent is ever rejected. Therefore, since the health
consequences and associated economic costs of not rejecting that 1 percent are negligible, whereas the
board's operating costs are considerable, for economic reasons alone the board should be disbanded.
Consultant: I disagree. The threat of having their shipments rejected deters many cheese exporters from
shipping substandard product.
The consultant responds to the lawmaker's argument by
(A) rejecting the lawmaker's argument while proposing that the standards according to which the board
inspects imported cheese should be raised
(B) providing evidence that the lawmaker's argument has significantly overestimated the cost of maintaining
the board
(C) objecting to the lawmaker's introducing into the discussion factors that are not strictly economic
(D) pointing out a benefit of maintaining the board, which the lawmaker's argument has failed to consider
(E) shifting the discussion from the argument at hand to an attack on the integrity of the cheese inspectors


35. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
The computer industry's estimate that it loses millions of dollars when users illegally copy programs without
paying for them is greatly exaggerated. Most of the illegal copying is done by people with no serious interest in
the programs. Thus, the loss to the industry is quite small, because .
(A) many users who illegally copy programs never find any use for them
(B) most people who illegally copy programs would not purchase them even if purchasing them were the only
way to obtain them
(C) even if the computer industry received all the revenue it claims to be losing, it would still be experiencing
financial difficulties
(D) the total market value of all illegal copies is low in comparison to the total revenue of the computer
industry
(E) the number of programs that are frequently copied illegally is low in comparison to the number of
programs available for sale


36. The growing popularity of computer-based activities was widely expected to result in a decline in television
viewing, since it had been assumed that people lack sufficient free time to maintain current television-viewing
levels while spending increasing amounts of free time on the computer. That assumption, however, is evidently
false: In a recent mail survey concerning media use, a very large majority of respondents who report increasing
time spent per week using computers report no change in time spent watching television.
Which of the following would it be most useful to determine in order to evaluate the argument?
(A) Whether a large majority of the survey respondents reported watching television regularly
(B) Whether the amount of time spent watching television is declining among people who report that they
rarely or never use computers
(C) Whether the type of television programs a person watches tends to change as the amount of time spent
per week using computers increases
(D) Whether a large majority of the computer owners in the survey reported spending increasing amounts of
time per week using computers
(E) Whether the survey respondents' reports of time spent using computers included time spent using
computers at work


37. In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee consumption. During this same time, there
has been increasing publicity about the adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in coffee.
Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers' awareness of the
harmful effects of caffeine.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the explanation above?
(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago.
(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after
significantly decreasing their coffee consumption.
(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined.
(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade.
(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing
nations.

38. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
When the products of several competing suppliers are perceived by consumers to be essentially the same,
classical economics predicts that price competition will reduce prices to the same minimal levels and all
suppliers' profits to the same minimal levels. Therefore, if classical economics is true, and given suppliers'
desire to make as much profit as possible, it should be expected that .
(A) in a crowded market widely differing prices will be charged for products that are essentially the same as
each other
(B) as a market becomes less crowded as suppliers leave, the profits of the remaining suppliers will tend to
decrease
(C) each supplier in a crowded market will try to convince consumers that its product differs significantly from
its competitors' products.
(D) when consumers are unable to distinguish the products in a crowded market, consumers will judge that
the higher-priced products are of higher quality
(E) suppliers in crowded markets will have more incentive to reduce prices and thus increase sales than to
introduce innovations that would distinguish their product from their competitors' products

39. Which of the following most logically completes the argument?
Sviatovin is a medieval Moringian text whose author and exact date of composition are unknown. However, the
events in the life of Prince Sviatov that the text describes occurred in 1165, and in the diagram of Sviatov's
family that accompanies the text his father, who died in 1167, is identified as still living. Thus Sviatovin must
have been written between 1165 and 1167, assuming that .
(A) the life of Prince Sviatov is not the subject of any other medieval Moringian texts
(B) the author of Sviatovin intended it to provide as accurate a report about Prince Sviatov's exploits as
possible
(C) the diagram accurately represents the composition of Sviatov's family at the time Sviatovin was written
(D) Sviatovin is the earliest Moringian text whose composition can be dated to within a few years
(E) Sviatovin was not written by Sviatov's father himself

40. Crowding on Mooreville's subway frequently leads to delays, because it is difficult for passengers to exit from
the trains. Subway ridership is projected to increase by 20 percent over the next 10 years. The Mooreville
Transit Authority plans to increase the number of daily train trips by only 5 percent over the same period.
Officials predict that this increase is sufficient to ensure that the incidence of delays due to crowding does not
increase.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest grounds for the officials' prediction?
(A) By changing maintenance schedules, the Transit Authority can achieve the 5 percent increase in train trips
without purchasing any new subway cars.
(B) The Transit Authority also plans a 5 percent increase in the number of bus trips on routes that connect to
subways.
(C) For most commuters who use the subway system, there is no practical alternative public transportation
available.
(D) Most of the projected increase in ridership is expected to occur in off-peak hours when trains are now
sparsely used.
(E) The 5 percent increase in the number of train trips can be achieved without an equal increase in Transit
Authority operational costs.


41. Installing scrubbers in smokestacks and switching to cleaner-burning fuel are the two methods available to
Northern Power for reducing harmful emissions from its plants. Scrubbers will reduce harmful emissions more
than cleaner-burning fuels will. Therefore, by installing scrubbers, Northern Power will be doing the most that
can be done to reduce harmful emissions from its plants.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) Switching to cleaner-burning fuel will not be more expensive than installing scrubbers.
(B) Northern Power can choose from among various kinds of scrubbers, some of which are more effective
than others.
(C) Northern Power is not necessarily committed to reducing harmful emissions from its plants.
(D) Harmful emissions from Northern Power's plants cannot be reduced more by using both methods together
than by the installation of scrubbers alone.
(E) Aside from harmful emissions from the smokestacks of its plants, the activities of Northern Power do not
cause significant air pollution.


42. Trancorp currently transports all its goods to Burland Island by truck. The only bridge over the channel
separating Burland from the mainland is congested, and trucks typically spend hours in traffic. Trains can reach
the channel more quickly than trucks, and freight cars can be transported to Burland by barges that typically
cross the channel in an hour. Therefore, to reduce shipping time, Trancorp plans to switch to trains and barges
to transport goods to Burland.
Which of the following would be most important to know in determining whether Trancorp's plan, if implemented,
is likely to achieve its goal?
(A) Whether transportation by train and barge would be substantially less expensive than transportation by
truck
(B) Whether there are boats that can make the trip between the mainland and Burland faster than barges can
(C) Whether loading the freight cars onto barges is very time consuming
(D) Whether the average number of vehicles traveling over the bridge into Burland has been relatively constant
in recent years
(E) Whether most trucks transporting goods into Burland return to the mainland empty

CR - Q and A

31. Which of the following most logically completes the argument?
Ferber's syndrome, a viral disease that frequently affects cattle, is transmitted to these animals through infected
feed. Even though chickens commercially raised for meat are often fed the type of feed identified as the source
of infection in cattle, Ferber's syndrome is only rarely observed in chickens. This fact, however, does not
indicate that most chickens are immune to the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome, since .
(A) chickens and cattle are not the only kinds of farm animal that are typically fed the type of feed liable to be
contaminated with the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome
(B) Ferber's syndrome has been found in animals that have not been fed the type of feed liable to be
contaminated with the virus that can cause the disease
(C) resistance to some infectious organisms such as the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome can be acquired
by exposure to a closely related infectious organism
(D) chickens and cattle take more than a year to show symptoms of Ferber's syndrome, and chickens
commercially raised for meat, unlike cattle, are generally brought to market during the first year of life
(E) the type of feed liable to be infected with the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome generally constitutes a
larger proportion of the diet of commercially raised chickens than of commercially raised cattle
Argument Construction
Situation Certain feed given to cows and to chickens commercially raised for meat is infected with
the virus that causes Ferber's syndrome. Cows are frequently affected by this disease,
while it is rarely observed in chickens. But (for a reason the argument omits) this does
not suggest that chickens are immune to the virus.
Reasoning What point would most logically complete the argument? How could it be the case
that chickens are infected, yet Ferber's syndrome is only rarely observed in them? The
important point here is that Ferber's syndrome is not observed in chickens. A disease is
usually observed to be present on the basis of its symptoms. Those symptoms might not
be present, or might not yet be present, in chickens that are infected with the virus. If the
chickens were used for meat before they began showing symptoms, then they would not
be observed to have Ferber's syndrome, but this would not indicate that they were
immune to the virus.
A That other animals are fed the potentially contaminated feed is not relevant to the question of
whether chickens are immune to the virus.
B The idea that there could be a source of the virus other than contaminated feed does not have any
bearing on whether chickens are immune to the virus.
C The idea that there is a way for animals to acquire a resistance to the virus that causes Ferber's
syndrome suggests that some animals, possibly chickens, might be immune to the virus. This is
the opposite of what the argument is trying to establish.
D Correct. This statement properly identifies a point that logically completes the argument: It
provides a reason why infected chickens would fail to show symptoms of Ferber's syndrome.
E If chickens' diets contain proportionally more of the potentially infected feed than cattle's diets
do, it is even more surprising that Ferber's syndrome is not observed in chickens—far from
providing a reason not to conclude that chickens are immune to the virus; this makes it seem
even more likely that they are immune.
The correct answer is D.


32. Last year the rate of inflation was 1.2 percent, but for the current year it has been 4 percent. We can conclude
that inflation is on an upward trend and the rate will be still higher next year.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?
(A) The inflation figures were computed on the basis of a representative sample of economic data rather than
all of the available data.
(B) Last year a dip in oil prices brought inflation temporarily below its recent stable annual level of 4 percent.
(C) Increases in the pay of some workers are tied to the level of inflation, and at an inflation rate of 4 percent
or above, these pay raises constitute a force causing further inflation.
(D) The 1.2 percent rate of inflation last year represented a 10-year low.
(E) Government intervention cannot affect the rate of inflation to any significant degree.
Argument Evaluation
Situation The rate of inflation was 1.2 percent last year but is 4 percent in the current year. It is
therefore expected to rise above 4 percent next year.
Reasoning What point most weakens this conclusion? The conclusion is based on an upward trend that
is derived from data for two years. Data from only two years provide rather weak
evidence of a trend. Additional evidence that provides a context for the annual inflation
rates during the most recent two-year period will promote a more solid evaluation of this
prediction of next year's inflation rate. If inflation has recently been stable at 4 percent,
and the temporary drop the previous year is accounted for by lower oil prices, then the
basis for the prediction seems quite weak.
A As long as the sample was representative, the figures should be accurate. This point does not
weaken the conclusion.
B Correct. This statement suggests that the 1.2 percent inflation rate is an unusual occurrence in
recent years. Especially because the dip below the stable 4 percent rate was temporary, this
unusual occurrence cannot be used as the basis for predicting a trend.
C This statement explains one process by which inflation increases and tends to support the
conclusion that inflation will continue to rise.
D This information implies, for example, that two years ago, the inflation rate was higher than
1.2 percent. This raises the possibility (without stating it) that last year and the year preceding
mark a trend of declining inflation (and that the current year's 4 percent is an aberration).
However, if the inflation rate two years ago was only slightly higher than 1.2 percent (for
example, 1.25 percent), then it would be difficult to regard these two numbers as signaling a
trend of declining inflation. We do not have enough information here to regard this as a
significant weakener. The information is sufficient to justify a little doubt about the argument's
conclusion—but not at all specific enough to undermine the argument's conclusion as much as
does answer choice (B).
E The failure of government intervention to affect the rate of inflation could be seen to support, not
weaken, the conclusion.
The correct answer is B.


33. Which of the following most logically completes the argument below?
Although the number of large artificial satellites orbiting the Earth is small compared to the number of small
pieces of debris in orbit, the large satellites interfere more seriously with telescope observations because of the
strong reflections they produce. Because many of those large satellites have ceased to function, the proposal
has recently been made to eliminate interference from nonfunctioning satellites by exploding them in space.
This proposal, however, is ill conceived, since .
(A) many nonfunctioning satellites remain in orbit for years
(B) for satellites that have ceased to function, repairing them while they are in orbit would be prohibitively
expensive
(C) there are no known previous instances of satellites' having been exploded on purpose
(D) the only way to make telescope observations without any interference from debris in orbit is to use
telescopes launched into extremely high orbits around the Earth
(E) a greatly increased number of small particles in Earth's orbit would result in a blanket of reflections that
would make certain valuable telescope observations impossible
Evaluation of a Plan
Situation Many large artificial satellites orbiting earth no longer function. Reflections from these
satellites interfere with telescope observations. A proposal has been made to eliminate
this interference by exploding these satellites in space.
Reasoning Why is the proposal ill conceived? If exploding the large artificial satellites—thereby
creating a large amount of debris—would result in an increase in interference with
telescope observation, the proposal would be self-defeating, and therefore would be ill
conceived.
A The fact that many nonfunctioning satellites remain in orbit for years would seem to make the
proposal more attractive. If large nonfunctioning artificial satellites generally do not remain in
orbit for years—e.g., if they fall out of orbit—then there might be no need to explode the satellites.
Therefore this statement is not correct.
B This statement, too, makes the proposal more attractive—the opposite of what is called for. If
nonfunctioning satellites cannot be repaired, then that eliminates one possible reason for not
blowing them up.
C The fact that there are no known instances of intentional explosions of satellites does not show that
the plan is ill conceived. At most this might suggest that the consequences of such an explosion
are not well understood, but even that is not very strongly suggested. For instance, if large artificial
satellites have accidentally blown up, scientists may have studied the results and have good reason
to believe that no ill-effects will result from exploding the satellites.
D This is not a cogent reason for thinking the proposal to be ill conceived. Even if the proposal
would not eliminate all interference with ground based telescopes, it might still greatly reduce
interference.
E Correct. If exploding large nonfunctioning satellites would lead to more interference, then we
have a reason to think that the proposal is ill conceived.
The correct answer is E.

34. Thyrian lawmaker: Thyria's Cheese Importation Board inspects all cheese shipments to Thyria and rejects
shipments not meeting specified standards. Yet only 1 percent is ever rejected. Therefore, since the health
consequences and associated economic costs of not rejecting that 1 percent are negligible, whereas the
board's operating costs are considerable, for economic reasons alone the board should be disbanded.
Consultant: I disagree. The threat of having their shipments rejected deters many cheese exporters from
shipping substandard product.
The consultant responds to the lawmaker's argument by
(A) rejecting the lawmaker's argument while proposing that the standards according to which the board
inspects imported cheese should be raised
(B) providing evidence that the lawmaker's argument has significantly overestimated the cost of maintaining
the board
(C) objecting to the lawmaker's introducing into the discussion factors that are not strictly economic
(D) pointing out a benefit of maintaining the board, which the lawmaker's argument has failed to consider
(E) shifting the discussion from the argument at hand to an attack on the integrity of the cheese inspectors
Argument Construction
Situation The Thyrian lawmaker argues that the Cheese Importation Board should be disbanded,
because its operating costs are high and it rejects only a small percentage of the cheese it
inspects. The consultant disagrees, pointing out that the board's inspections deter those
who export cheese to Thyria from shipping substandard cheese.
Reasoning What strategy does the consultant use in the counterargument? The consultant indicates to the
lawmaker that there is a reason to retain the board that the lawmaker has not considered.
The benefit the board provides is not that it identifies a great deal of substandard cheese
and rejects it (thus keeping the public healthy), but that the possibility that their cheese
could be found substandard is what keeps exporters from attempting to export lowquality
cheese to Thyria.
A The consultant does reject the lawmaker's argument, but the consultant does not propose higher
standards. Indeed, in suggesting that the board should be retained, the consultant implies that
the board's standards are appropriate.
B The consultant does not provide any evidence related to the board's cost.
C The only point the lawmaker raises that is not strictly economic is about the health consequences
of disbanding the board, but the consultant does not address this point at all.
D Correct. This statement properly identifies the strategy the consultant employs in his or her
counterargument. The consultant points out that the board provides a significant benefit that the
lawmaker did not consider.
E The consultant does not attack the integrity of the cheese inspectors; to the contrary, the
consultant says that their inspections deter the cheese exporters from shipping substandard
cheese.
The correct answer is D.


35. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
The computer industry's estimate that it loses millions of dollars when users illegally copy programs without
paying for them is greatly exaggerated. Most of the illegal copying is done by people with no serious interest in
the programs. Thus, the loss to the industry is quite small, because .
(A) many users who illegally copy programs never find any use for them
(B) most people who illegally copy programs would not purchase them even if purchasing them were the only
way to obtain them
(C) even if the computer industry received all the revenue it claims to be losing, it would still be experiencing
financial difficulties
(D) the total market value of all illegal copies is low in comparison to the total revenue of the computer
industry
(E) the number of programs that are frequently copied illegally is low in comparison to the number of
programs available for sale
Argument Construction
Situation The computer industry's estimate of its losses due to illegally copied programs is
exaggerated—and actually quite small—because most of the illegal copying is done by
people who are not greatly interested in the programs.
Reasoning Why would the loss to the industry be said to be small? The industry's loss due to illegal
copying of programs must be evaluated in terms of the sales lost; the actual loss to the
industry is directly related to the legitimate sales opportunities that have been lost.
Would the people illegally copying the programs buy them if they could not otherwise
obtain them? If it were true that most of them have no serious interest in the programs, they
would be unlikely to purchase them. In this case, few sales would be lost and the loss to
the industry could be considered small.
A What users do (or do not do) with programs once they have them does not help to show that the
loss to the industry is small.
B Correct. This information provides a reason supporting the claim that the industry has not lost
potential sales.
C The greater financial difficulties of the industry do not help to show that the loss incurred because
of the illegally copied programs is small.
D This comparison is faulty: The loss is not being considered in the context of total industry
revenues but in the context of total sales of programs.
E This information does not provide a good reason for the claim that the loss to the industry is
small. Even if the number of programs frequently copied is low, the number of copies made from
each program might be huge (for the most popular programs).
The correct answer is B.

36. The growing popularity of computer-based activities was widely expected to result in a decline in television
viewing, since it had been assumed that people lack sufficient free time to maintain current television-viewing
levels while spending increasing amounts of free time on the computer. That assumption, however, is evidently
false: In a recent mail survey concerning media use, a very large majority of respondents who report increasing
time spent per week using computers report no change in time spent watching television.
Which of the following would it be most useful to determine in order to evaluate the argument?
(A) Whether a large majority of the survey respondents reported watching television regularly
(B) Whether the amount of time spent watching television is declining among people who report that they
rarely or never use computers
(C) Whether the type of television programs a person watches tends to change as the amount of time spent
per week using computers increases
(D) Whether a large majority of the computer owners in the survey reported spending increasing amounts of
time per week using computers
(E) Whether the survey respondents' reports of time spent using computers included time spent using
computers at work
Argument Evaluation
Situation The argument is intended to debunk the assumption that people lack sufficient free time
to maintain television-viewing levels while spending increasing amounts of free time on
the computer. To do so, it cites a survey of media use in which a large majority of
respondents who spend increasing amounts of time using computers also claim to have
not altered the amount of time they spend watching television.
Reasoning What would it be most useful to know in order to evaluate the argument? The argument uses
the survey results to claim that people have enough free time to both maintain their
television viewing levels and spend increasing amounts of free time on the computer. But
the survey, as reported here, did not address whether people are spending their free time
on the computer; the respondents reported increasing time spent per week using
computers. Since the argument is about free time, it is important to know whether this is
actually what the respondents were reporting.
A The argument is concerned with the change in the amount of television watched by those whose
computer use increased, so whether the survey's respondents reported watching television
regularly is irrelevant.
B The argument is concerned with the change in the amount of television watched by those whose
computer use has increased, so it does not matter whether the amount of time spent watching
television among people who do not use computers is declining, remaining the same, or
increasing.
C The argument is concerned with the amount of television watched by those whose computer use
has increased, not the type of television programs such a person does or does not watch.
D The argument here is concerned with people who report spending increasing amounts of time on
the computer; what computer owners do is a separate question.
E Correct. This statement properly identifies something that would be useful to know in evaluating
the argument: whether the survey data included time spent using computers at work—if it did,
this would make the data misleading as evidence for the argument's conclusion.
The correct answer is E.

37. In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee consumption. During this same time, there
has been increasing publicity about the adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in coffee.
Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers' awareness of the
harmful effects of caffeine.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the explanation above?
(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago.
(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after
significantly decreasing their coffee consumption.
(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined.
(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade.
(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing
nations.
Argument Evaluation
Situation The decrease in coffee consumption in the last decade can be explained by consumers'
increased awareness of the detrimental effects of the caffeine in coffee.
Reasoning What point weakens this explanation? A conclusion offering an explanation for some
occurrence may be weakened when another explanation at least as compelling as the
original is offered. Coffee consumption may have decreased over the decade for some
reason other than consumers' awareness of the adverse health effects of caffeine. If the
price of coffee has increased in the same period that consumption has decreased, then
the decrease may well be the result of consumers' attention to price rather than their
attention to health. Higher prices would offer a good alternative explanation that would
weaken the original explanation.
A This point merely tells us how much coffee consumption has decreased; it does not make the
explanation offered in the conclusion any less likely to be correct.
B Withdrawal symptoms would occur only after decreased consumption has occurred and so
cannot explain why the decrease occurred.
C Suppose that the specialty coffees that had their sales hold steady were all caffeine-free coffees;
note that nothing rules this out. If this were the case, the explanation would remain plausible.
D An increase in the consumption of these drinks could plausibly be the result of some coffee
drinkers switching to these drinks to avoid the negative effects of caffeine.
E Correct. This statement properly identifies a plausible alternative explanation and therefore
undermines the given explanation.
The correct answer is E.


38. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
When the products of several competing suppliers are perceived by consumers to be essentially the same,
classical economics predicts that price competition will reduce prices to the same minimal levels and all
suppliers' profits to the same minimal levels. Therefore, if classical economics is true, and given suppliers'
desire to make as much profit as possible, it should be expected that .
(A) in a crowded market widely differing prices will be charged for products that are essentially the same as
each other
(B) as a market becomes less crowded as suppliers leave, the profits of the remaining suppliers will tend to
decrease
(C) each supplier in a crowded market will try to convince consumers that its product differs significantly from
its competitors' products.
(D) when consumers are unable to distinguish the products in a crowded market, consumers will judge that
the higher-priced products are of higher quality
(E) suppliers in crowded markets will have more incentive to reduce prices and thus increase sales than to
introduce innovations that would distinguish their product from their competitors' products
Argument Construction
Situation Classical economics holds that prices and profits are minimal when consumers perceive
the products of competing suppliers to be the same.
Reasoning According to classical economics, what strategy are suppliers most likely to use to maximize profits
in such a situation? The given information states that the force driving prices and profits
down in this case is the consumers' perception that the competing products are essentially
the same. It is reasonable to assume that, with prices already at minimal levels, it is not
possible to lower them any more. What can be done? The suppliers' most likely strategy
would then be to change the consumers' perception of their products. It can be expected
that an individual supplier would try to convince consumers that its product greatly
differs from (and is certainly preferable to) the products of its competitors.
A According to classical economics, prices will be reduced by competition to the same minimal levels
as long as the products are perceived by consumers to be essentially the same, and nothing indicates
that they will not be; therefore there is no reason to believe that prices will differ widely.
B The passage discusses the conditions of a crowded market, not a market that is becoming less
crowded.
C Correct. This statement properly suggests that the most likely strategy for any one supplier in
a crowded market is convincing consumers that its product is very different from those of its
competitors.
D According to classical economics, prices will be reduced to the same minimal levels when consumers
are unable to distinguish among the products; therefore none of the products will be priced
higher than any others.
E The passage gives no indication of what classical economics says about the attractiveness to
suppliers of reducing prices versus introducing innovations.
The correct answer is C.


39. Which of the following most logically completes the argument?
Sviatovin is a medieval Moringian text whose author and exact date of composition are unknown. However, the
events in the life of Prince Sviatov that the text describes occurred in 1165, and in the diagram of Sviatov's
family that accompanies the text his father, who died in 1167, is identified as still living. Thus Sviatovin must
have been written between 1165 and 1167, assuming that .
(A) the life of Prince Sviatov is not the subject of any other medieval Moringian texts
(B) the author of Sviatovin intended it to provide as accurate a report about Prince Sviatov's exploits as
possible
(C) the diagram accurately represents the composition of Sviatov's family at the time Sviatovin was written
(D) Sviatovin is the earliest Moringian text whose composition can be dated to within a few years
(E) Sviatovin was not written by Sviatov's father himself
Argument Construction
Situation A medieval Moringian text was written about Prince Sviatov. It is not known exactly
when the text was written, but the events described in it occurred in 1165 and a diagram
in the text indicates that Sviatov's father—who died in 1167—was alive at the time it was
composed.
Reasoning What completion of the blank would provide the best reason for believing the argument's
conclusion? The argument's conclusion is that the book Sviatovin was written between
1165 and 1167. The reasoning given is this: It could not have been written before 1165
because it includes events that took place in that year. It could not have been written after
1167 because Sviatov's father died in that year. A diagram in the book suggests he was
alive when the book was written. Was the diagram correct in that suggestion? The
argument depends on assuming that it was.
A The argument focuses on one text and its date of composition. The argument does not need to
make any assumptions about other texts.
B The argument does not assume this. Issues about the accurate reporting of Sviatov's exploits (or
about the author's intention to report them accurately) are irrelevant to the argument, which
hinges on the accuracy of the diagram that accompanies the text. The diagram does not report
Sviatov's exploits.
C Correct. The reasoning in the argument assumes that the diagram was correct in representing the
Prince's father as still living when the text was composed. If his father was not living when the
text was written, then the information that his father actually died in 1167 is no guarantee that the
text was composed by then.
D See the explanation for answer choice (A) above. The degree of precision with which scholars have
succeeded in dating other Moringian texts is entirely irrelevant.
E The conclusion concerns when Sviatovin was written and not by whom it was written. If, contrary
to answer choice (E), it were known that the author was Sviatov's father, this would actually
provide strong support for the argument's conclusion. Thus answer choice (E) does not provide a
good reason for the argument's conclusion.
The correct answer is C.

40. Crowding on Mooreville's subway frequently leads to delays, because it is difficult for passengers to exit from
the trains. Subway ridership is projected to increase by 20 percent over the next 10 years. The Mooreville
Transit Authority plans to increase the number of daily train trips by only 5 percent over the same period.
Officials predict that this increase is sufficient to ensure that the incidence of delays due to crowding does not
increase.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest grounds for the officials' prediction?
(A) By changing maintenance schedules, the Transit Authority can achieve the 5 percent increase in train trips
without purchasing any new subway cars.
(B) The Transit Authority also plans a 5 percent increase in the number of bus trips on routes that connect to
subways.
(C) For most commuters who use the subway system, there is no practical alternative public transportation
available.
(D) Most of the projected increase in ridership is expected to occur in off-peak hours when trains are now
sparsely used.
(E) The 5 percent increase in the number of train trips can be achieved without an equal increase in Transit
Authority operational costs.
Argument Construction
Situation Ridership on the Mooreville subway, which often experiences delays due to crowding, is
expected to increase 20 percent over the next 10 years. Despite plans to increase the
number of daily trains only 5 percent during those 10 years, officials predict that delays
due to crowding will not increase.
Reasoning What would provide the strongest grounds for the officials' prediction that delays due to crowding
will not increase? Delays due to crowding probably would increase if the extra 20 percent
total ridership occurred at typically busy times, even if the total 5 percent increase in the
number of daily trains were to occur at those typically busy times. The increases in daily
trains would clearly not be enough to absorb the extra ridership. If the increase in
ridership were to occur at other times of day, however, perhaps when the subway trains
were less crowded overall, the system would be able to absorb the extra passengers
without an increase in delays due to crowding.
A While this supports the idea that the Transit Authority can economically increase the number of
train trips, it provides no information about whether the trains will be crowded.
B Increasing the number of bus trips on routes that connect to subways would be likely to lead to
more people to ride the subways. This makes it less likely that the officials' prediction—that
delays due to overcrowding will not increase—will turn out to have been accurate.
C This suggests that subway ridership will remain high, and thus that delays caused by
overcrowding will continue.
D Correct. This statement properly identifies a situation in which the officials' prediction is likely
to turn out to have been accurate. The ridership will be increasing during times when more
passengers will not create delays, since they will merely fill empty seats on existing trains.
E While this supports the idea that the Transit Authority can economically increase the number of
train trips, it provides no information about whether the trains will be crowded.
The correct answer is D.


41. Installing scrubbers in smokestacks and switching to cleaner-burning fuel are the two methods available to
Northern Power for reducing harmful emissions from its plants. Scrubbers will reduce harmful emissions more
than cleaner-burning fuels will. Therefore, by installing scrubbers, Northern Power will be doing the most that
can be done to reduce harmful emissions from its plants.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) Switching to cleaner-burning fuel will not be more expensive than installing scrubbers.
(B) Northern Power can choose from among various kinds of scrubbers, some of which are more effective
than others.
(C) Northern Power is not necessarily committed to reducing harmful emissions from its plants.
(D) Harmful emissions from Northern Power's plants cannot be reduced more by using both methods together
than by the installation of scrubbers alone.
(E) Aside from harmful emissions from the smokestacks of its plants, the activities of Northern Power do not
cause significant air pollution.
Argument Construction
Situation A power plant can reduce emissions by installing scrubbers and also by switching to
cleaner-burning fuel; installing scrubbers reduces emissions more than switching fuels.
By installing scrubbers, the company is doing the most that it can do.
Reasoning What assumption does the argument depend on? The assumption will be a statement that has
to be true in order for the argument's premises to provide a solid reason for believing its
conclusion. Here, the conclusion that the company is doing the most that it can do is
based on believing that choosing one or the other of the two options will be more
effective than choosing both options together. This argument assumes, then, that
installing the scrubbers alone is just as effective as both installing scrubbers and
switching to cleaner-burning fuel.
A The relative costs of the two options indicate nothing about whether by installing scrubbers the
company will have done the most that it can to reduce harmful emissions.
B Even if the company installs the most efficient scrubbers, it may be that there is more that
Northern Power could do to reduce harmful emissions.
C Even if the company is fully committed to reducing harmful emissions, it could be that installing
scrubbers is the most it can do to reduce harmful emissions.
D Correct. If harmful emissions could be reduced even more by using both methods, then
installing scrubbers alone will not be the most that the company can do to reduce harmful
emissions.
E Even if this were not assumed and the company's other activities did cause significant air
pollution, it could still be that installing scrubbers is the most that the company can do to reduce
harmful emissions from its plants; perhaps any of its other activities that do cause significant air
pollution have nothing to do with its plants—for example, pollution coming from trucks the
company uses.
The correct answer is D.

41. Installing scrubbers in smokestacks and switching to cleaner-burning fuel are the two methods available to
Northern Power for reducing harmful emissions from its plants. Scrubbers will reduce harmful emissions more
than cleaner-burning fuels will. Therefore, by installing scrubbers, Northern Power will be doing the most that
can be done to reduce harmful emissions from its plants.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) Switching to cleaner-burning fuel will not be more expensive than installing scrubbers.
(B) Northern Power can choose from among various kinds of scrubbers, some of which are more effective
than others.
(C) Northern Power is not necessarily committed to reducing harmful emissions from its plants.
(D) Harmful emissions from Northern Power's plants cannot be reduced more by using both methods together
than by the installation of scrubbers alone.
(E) Aside from harmful emissions from the smokestacks of its plants, the activities of Northern Power do not
cause significant air pollution.
Argument Construction
Situation A power plant can reduce emissions by installing scrubbers and also by switching to
cleaner-burning fuel; installing scrubbers reduces emissions more than switching fuels.
By installing scrubbers, the company is doing the most that it can do.
Reasoning What assumption does the argument depend on? The assumption will be a statement that has
to be true in order for the argument's premises to provide a solid reason for believing its
conclusion. Here, the conclusion that the company is doing the most that it can do is
based on believing that choosing one or the other of the two options will be more
effective than choosing both options together. This argument assumes, then, that
installing the scrubbers alone is just as effective as both installing scrubbers and
switching to cleaner-burning fuel.
A The relative costs of the two options indicate nothing about whether by installing scrubbers the
company will have done the most that it can to reduce harmful emissions.
B Even if the company installs the most efficient scrubbers, it may be that there is more that
Northern Power could do to reduce harmful emissions.
C Even if the company is fully committed to reducing harmful emissions, it could be that installing
scrubbers is the most it can do to reduce harmful emissions.
D Correct. If harmful emissions could be reduced even more by using both methods, then
installing scrubbers alone will not be the most that the company can do to reduce harmful
emissions.
E Even if this were not assumed and the company's other activities did cause significant air
pollution, it could still be that installing scrubbers is the most that the company can do to reduce
harmful emissions from its plants; perhaps any of its other activities that do cause significant air
pollution have nothing to do with its plants—for example, pollution coming from trucks the
company uses.
The correct answer is D.

42. Trancorp currently transports all its goods to Burland Island by truck. The only bridge over the channel
separating Burland from the mainland is congested, and trucks typically spend hours in traffic. Trains can reach
the channel more quickly than trucks, and freight cars can be transported to Burland by barges that typically
cross the channel in an hour. Therefore, to reduce shipping time, Trancorp plans to switch to trains and barges
to transport goods to Burland.
Which of the following would be most important to know in determining whether Trancorp's plan, if implemented,
is likely to achieve its goal?
(A) Whether transportation by train and barge would be substantially less expensive than transportation by
truck
(B) Whether there are boats that can make the trip between the mainland and Burland faster than barges can
(C) Whether loading the freight cars onto barges is very time consuming
(D) Whether the average number of vehicles traveling over the bridge into Burland has been relatively constant
in recent years
(E) Whether most trucks transporting goods into Burland return to the mainland empty
Evaluation of a Plan
Situation Transporting goods to Burland Island by truck takes many hours, because the trucks
must take the congested single bridge that reaches the island. Trains can get goods to the
channel separating Burland from the mainland more quickly than trucks can, and the
freight cars can then be loaded onto barges that can cross the channel in an hour.
Trancorp plans to reduce shipping time by switching from trucks to trains and barges.
Reasoning What would it be most important to know in determining whether Trancorp will achieve its
goal of reducing shipping time? Trancorp's plan could fail to reduce shipping time if there
were some aspect of the new shipping process, involving the trains and the barges, that
took more time than anticipated.
A The goal of Trancorp's plan is to reduce shipping time. This might lower costs—but whether or
not it does so is not directly relevant to whether or not the plan's goal is achieved.
B Trancorp's plan involves the use of barges. If some boats can make the trip between the mainland
and Burland faster than barges can, that might be something to consider for the future, but it has
nothing to do with whether the current plan will reduce shipping time.
C Correct. This statement properly identifies something that would be important in determining
whether Trancorp's plan for reducing shipping time will achieve its goal—that is, whether loading
the freight cars onto the barges will use up all the time saved by not using trucks.
D Regardless of variation in traffic, the bridge, according to the information provided in the passage,
is congested and typically causes trucking delays. Given this information, the degree of variation
is not helpful in evaluating Transcorp's plan.
E The state of the trucks returning to the mainland has nothing to do with whether Trancorp's plan
for reducing shipping time will achieve its goal.
The correct answer is C.

Sunday 30 October 2016

LRDI - 30.10.16






Directions for questions 49 to 51: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.


An ATM needs exactly two guards on each day of a week from Monday to Saturday. Puneet, Vikrant,
Vikram, Jasneet and Saurabh are the people responsible for guarding the ATM. None of them works for
three consecutive days during the week. Puneet does not work on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday.
Jasneet and Vikrant never work on the same day. Vikrant works on alternate days and he works with
Puneet on Friday. Saurabh works for the maximum number of days during the week among the five guards.
Both Jasneet and Vikrant work for an odd number of days during the week. Two particular guards work for
the same number of days during the week; each of the rest three works for a distinct number of days.

49. If Saurabh works with one particular guard twice during the week, then which guard works on the
same day as Jasneet?
(a) Vikram (b) Saurabh (c) Puneet (d) Cannot be determined

50. If Saurabh works with a different guard every time during the week, then which two guards work on
Thursday?
(a) Saurabh and Puneet (b) Saurabh and Jasneet
(c) Saurabh and Vikram (d) Cannot be determined

51. Which of the following statements cannot be true?
(a) Saurabh and Puneet work together on Thursday.
(b) Vikram and Jasneet work together on Thursday.
(c) Puneet and Saurabh work together on Saturday.
(d) Saurabh and Vikram work together on Thursday.

Friday 28 October 2016

RC 1 RC2 exp

PASSAGE 1 1) Choice D Classification: Overview question Snapshot: Make sure to read "the first sentence of the passage first then the last sentence of the passage next." Sometimes the author concludes at the bottom of the passage. The major theme in this passage is that rituals are not only used by the Tsembaga society in a symbolic sense (that is, religiously, psychologically, or socially) but also in a practical or material way. Furthermore, these impacts or influences can be measured. Measurement is a key theme. Case in point: "they influence those relationships in measurable ways" (1st paragraph); "they enable cultural anthropologists to see that rituals can in fact produce measurable results in the external world" (2nd paragraph); and "newer quantitative studies permit anthropologists to analyze how ritual operates" (3rd paragraph). Choice D is a succinct rendition. The passage does not suggest that anthropologists and ecologists collaborate for best results (choice A), even though the passage does suggest that anthropologists analyze ecological factors. Choice B is incorrect because the author does not criticize the symbolic role of rituals; he or she instead extends the discussion of rituals to include regulatory functions or mechanisms. The last sentence of the first paragraph makes this point: "However, recent studies of the Tsembaga, a society of nomadic agriculturalists in New Guinea, suggest that rituals do more than give symbolic expression to the relationships between a cultural group and components of its environment …" The author does not evaluate theories of culture as indicated by choice C. His or her sole example is limited to the Tsembaga people. The authortherefore does not prove that these studies show the measurable effects of rituals on other environments (per choice E). Author's note: The T-S-P drill for this passage? The topic of this passage is "rituals of the Tsembaga people." The scope is the "symbolic and material aspects of rituals for the Tsembaga people." The purpose is "to show that the benefits of rituals for the Tsembaga people are not only symbolic (spiritual) but also material (practical), and that these benefits can be measured."

 2) Choice C Classification: Inference question Snapshot: This inference question serves to introduce the "all of the following except" phraseology in Reading Comprehension. The effects of rituals on neighboring populations is not described in the second paragraph so choice C would be the most unlikely candidate for inclusion in an anthropological study in support of the author's thesis. The influence of rituals on "the Tsembaga diet" (choice A), "the number of pigs owned" (choice B), "planting and harvest cycles" (choice D), or "type and function of weapons made" (choice E), all would be likely candidates for inclusion in such a report.


 3) Choice B Classification: Inference question Snapshot: This question is similar to an overview question but one which focuses on a specific subtopic within the passage. The first sentence of the second paragraph lists many ways that rituals act as regulating mechanisms. It is obvious therefore that "ritual is multifaceted and performs diverse functions." Choice A is not incorrect per se, but rather it is incomplete. The author's view that ritual does more than symbolize relationships appears in the last sentence of the first paragraph: "However, recent studies of the Tsembaga, a society of nomadic agriculturalists in New Guinea, suggest that rituals do more than give symbolic expression to the relationships between a cultural group and components of its environment; they influence those relationships in measurable ways." Choice C is essentially opposite the author's view. The choice would have been better had it read: "Rituals imbue the events of the spiritual (symbolic) world with material significance." Choice D is also opposite in meaning. According to the last sentence of the passage (it's a long one), the author implies that anthropologists are in a better position to understand a society's culture than is the society itself. In choice E, we cannot confirm or negate this answer choice based on information presented in the passage. It is not clear whether the spiritual significance of ritual is deemed greater than the material benefits of ritual or whether the material benefits of ritual are deemed greater than the spiritual benefits of ritual.



 4) Choice E Classification: Explicit-detail/Inference question Snapshot: This is essentially a "vocabulary" question and one which requires some verbal interpretation. The terms "latent function" and "hidden function" are worthy substitutes. Although the author states that "the Tsembaga themselves see their rituals as pertaining less to their material relations with the ecosystem than to their spiritual relations with their ancestors," this does not mean that such ritualsdo not for them perform other essential roles. The author brings up "latent function" to suggest there is "hidden benefit" in the use of ritual for the Tsembaga; these additional benefits are practical, not symbolic. In choices A and B, the author is not pitting anthropologists and sociologists against one another, or for that matter, the study of anthropology and sociology. Nor is the author suggesting that the two sides work together as suggested by choice C. The author is also not concluding that anthropologists are more interested in the regulatory function of rituals than the psychological or symbolic importance of rituals (choice D), even though the former — regulatory functions of ritual — is the focus of this passage. Note that the use of the comparative word "more" (choices A and D) often creates out of scope answer choices.






 PASSAGE 2



 1) Choice D Classification: Passage Organization question Snapshot: Science passages typically exist to describe (as opposed to Social Science passages which typically exist to argue) and such passages frequently incorporate two theories, hypotheses, or explanations. The new schema is based on the distinction between Type I and Type II supernovas; the original schema is one based on the absence of hydrogen (Type I) or the presence of hydrogen (Type II). The example of the Sun is provided as support for how the classification system works. Choice D best summarizes this structure. In choice A, the schemas do not necessarily overlap. An event classified as a Type I supernova under one schema might not be classified as a Type I supernova under the other schema (and vice versa). Also, the two schemas are described but not contrasted with each other. In choice B, it is inaccurate to describe the original theory as being overturned. The new theory is very much an "extension" of the old theory rather than a "replacement." In choice C, no conclusion is offered. For example, the author does not state that Type I is "better or worse" than Type II, or that Type I is easier to use in describing or explaining the occurrence of supernovas than Type II. No reconciliation between the two different classification systems is provided per choice E. The two different systems are very much distinct and do not lend themselves to reconciliation.



 2) Choice C Classification: Explicit-Detail/Inference question Snapshot: This question links two parts of the passage, namely the last paragraph with paragraphs two and three. Answer choice C describes accurately and completely the author's view in the final paragraph. The Sun is not a binary star because it doesn't have companion star orbiting it, so it can't qualify as a Type I supernova. Nor does the Sun have the size necessary to become a Type II supernova (it would have to be at least 1.4 times its own size). In choice A, there is no relationship suggested between the size of the Sun and its ability to have a white dwarf partner (per Type I). Choices B and D create unwarranted linkages between Type I and Type II supernovas. It is the white dwarf, not the Sun, which would undergo collapse and explosion as a supernova. In choice E, even if the Sun does become a red giant before becoming a white dwarf, it does not mean that it will become a supernova. It would still need another star (i.e., binary star) which it could absorb en route to becoming a Type I supernova.



 3) Choice A Classification: Inference question Snapshot: This question highlights the need to avoid choosing "reversed cause-and-effect relationships" and "fabricated cause-and-effect relationships" which are the hallmarks of certain incorrect inference answer choices that appear difficult Reading Comprehension passages. Choices B, C, and D represent examples of such reversed cause-and-effect relationships. In choice B, it is the dense white dwarf that explodes as a supernova, not the companion star! Choice C suggests that a star such as the Sun must first become a white dwarf before becoming a red giant. This stands in opposition to what is suggested in the last line of the passage: that a star such as the Sun "swells into a red giant star before going into white dwarf form." Choice D is more subtle. We know that Type II supernovas release energy from neutrinos and electromagnetic radiation. However the cause-and-effect relationship is reversed. It is the collapsing of the star that causes the release of energy as neutrinos and electromagnetic radiation, subsequent to the exploding of the star as a supernova. Choice D suggests that the energy and electromagnetic radiation is what causes the star to collapse and explode. Choice A is readily inferable from the second and third sentences of the opening paragraph. Classifying Type 1 and Type 2 events based on the presence or absence of hydrogen or based on the different explosion mechanisms are not necessarily incompatible with one another. In other words, an event might be classified as a Type I supernova because it doesn't have hydrogen lines or because it explodes as a result of being a white dwarf that acquires matter from its orbiting binary star. An event might be classified as a Type II supernova because it does have hydrogen lines or because it explodes as a result of being a massive collapsing star. There is no indication from the information given in the passage that supernovas are rare events in the universe at large (choice E). For all we know, they are common in some galaxies and rare in others. It is important not to draw upon outside knowledge when answering Reading Comprehension questions.



 Author's note: Per choice D, a simple example might serve to better clarify the nature of the potential overlap. Schema 1: Say, for example, we classify a good day versus a bad day by the absence or presence of rain. A good day will have the absence of rain while a bad day will have the presence of rain. Schema 2: We might also classify a good day versus a bad day based on the number of hours of sunshine received. A good day will have a substantial number of hours of sunshine while a bad day will have a minimum number of hours of sunshine. In short, between schemas 1 and 2, a good day might have the absence of rain and a substantial number of hours of sunshine. A bad day might have the presence of rain and a minimal number of hours of sunshine. As we can quickly see, a good day might be classified as a "good day" under either schema. On the contrary, a day might have a little rain and also a substantial number of hours of sunshine. In this case, it is considered a bad day under schema 1 but a good day under schema 2. Likewise, a day might have no rain and a minimal number of hours of sunshine. In this case, it is considered a good day under schema 1 but a bad day under schema 2. Here, there is no overlap between the two schemas.



 4) Choice B Classification: Inference/Explicit-detail question Snapshot: This question introduces the Roman numeral question-type in Reading Comprehension. The statement represented by statement I cannot be proved or disproved from information gleamed from the passage. Although Type II stars appear bigger than Type I ("much more massive than the Sun" versus "at least 1.4 times as big as the Sun"), it is not certain which Type releases the greatest amount of overall energy.Statement II is true. To be a binary star, the Sun must have an orbiting partner. Because the Sun does not, it does not qualify as a binary star (see first sentence of second paragraph as well as the last paragraph).Statement III is false. The last line of the third paragraph clearly states: "Whereas Type I supernovas typically destroy their parent stars, Type II explosions usually leave behind the stellar core." Type II supernovas, therefore, do not result in "complete destruction of the exploding star."



Author's note: This passage did not contain an overview question. Nonetheless, it is always recommended to do a T-S-P drill, asking what is the topic, scope, and purpose of the passage. The topic is "supernovas." The scope is "Type I and Type II supernovas."

The purpose is "to describe a new schema for classifying Type I and Type II supernovas." PASSAGE 3 1) 2) 3) 4) PASSAGE 4 1) 2) 3) 4) PASSAGE 5 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) PASSAGE 6 1) 2) 3) 4) PASSAGE 7 1) 2) 3) 4) PASSAGE 8 1) 2) 3) 4) Passage 9 1) 2) 3) 4) Solution Passage 10 trough 12 Solution Passage 13 trough 15 Solution Passage 16 trough 18