Sunday 25 October 2015

CL MOCK 15 01

Solutions of Mock CAT - 01 2015


  • QA & DI
  • VA & LR
  •  

    Sec 1

    Q.1 
    Four identical cylinders, each of height 2a units, are cut out from a metallic cube of side 2a units. What is the minimum volume of the metal that will be left out?
    a   
     
     
     
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.2 
    The price of a commodity witnesses two successive increase of x% and y% and then it is followed by two successive decrease of x% and y%. What is the net percentage change in the price of the commodity after the aforementioned changes if x × y = 100?
    a   -x2 -y2
     
     -x2 -y2 + 1
     
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.3 
    Ifwhere x > 0, find the value of x.
    a   1
     103
     0.1
     None of these
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.4 
    What is the number of consecutive zeroes at the end of 31254 ! ?
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.5 
    The number of four-digit natural numbers greater than 6000 that can be formed by using the digits 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, without repetition of digits, is
    a   72
     48
     64
     42
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.6 
    A natural number, V, which has only three prime factors, has exactly 12 distinct divisors including 1 and itself. If the sum of the prime factors of the number is 20, then the smallest possible value that the number can assume is
    a   60
     260
     308
     240
    Solution:
    V can be either (22 x 5 x 13) or (22 x 7 x 11); out of these two values of V, the minimum value is 260.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.7 
    The volumes of two vessels, which are filled up to the brim by milk of different prices, are 220 L and 180 L. An equal amount of milk is taken out from each of the two vessels, and the milk taken out from the first vessel is poured into the second vessel while the milk taken out from the second vessel is poured into the first vessel. If the price per liter of milk in both the vessels becomes the same eventually, find the volume of milk taken out from each of the two vessels.
    a   120 L
     60 L
     90 L
     99 L
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.8 
    If a, b and c are real numbers and a2 + b2 + c(2b + c) = 2a(b + c), then which of the following is definitely true?
    a   a = b - c
     a = c - b
     b = a - c
     a = 2b + c
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : c

    Q.9 
    If a and b are positive integers such that (a2 + b2) is divisible by 7, then the largest integer by which (a2 + b2) is always divisible is
    a   7
     49
     14
     21
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.10 
    A big cube is cut into 64 identical and smaller cubes. If 6 litres of paint was used to paint the original cube, how many more litres paint will be required to paint the smaller cubes on all faces?
    a   24 Litres
     23 Litres
     30 Litres
     18 Litres
    Solution:
    There are six faces in big cube. Each face takes 1 L paint. When it is cut into 64 identical and smaller cubes (by making 3 cuts along each dimension), each cut gives two new faces. So, 9 cut gives 18 new faces. Hence, extra amount of paint required is 18 L.
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.11 
    Mr Doodhwallah buys milk from Mother Dairy and sells it at his shop 'Father Dairy'. He buys milk at Rs. 12 per litre and adds 500 cm3 of pure water to every one liter of milk. If he sells the mixture so formed at Rs. 10 per litre, what is his profit percentage?(Assume water comes free of cost.)
    a   20%
     25%
     33.33%
     None of these
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.12 
    ABCDEF is a regular hexagon. If the area of triangle ABE is 100 sq.cm, the area of the original hexagon (in sq.cm) is
    a   
     
     200
     300
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.13 
    Four unbiased dice are thrown simultaneously. If the product of the outcomes is x, what is the probability that x has at least two consecutive zeroes at the end?
    a   41/648
     35/648
     1/16
     7/108
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.14 
    A can complete a piece of work in 12 days, B in 15 days and C in 20 days. All of them together started the work but C left when he realised that the remaining work will be completed without him in the next two days, and B left when he realised that the remaining work will be completed without him in the next one day. Find the total number of days taken to complete the work.
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.15 
    A point V with coordinates (x, y) is said to be 'Beauty' if both x and y are positive integers. The number of Beauty points on the curve xy = 200 is
    a   6
     9
     8
     12
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.16 
    When a three-digit number in base 7 is expressed in base 9, its digits get reversed. What is the sum of the digits of the number in base 9?
    a   5
     6
     7
     8
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.17 
    An isosceles  PQR with base PQ = 6 cm, PR = RQ and RPQ = 30° is inscribed in a circle. A small circle touches the bigger circle and also touches the base of the triangle at the mid-point. The radius of the smaller circle (in cm) is
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.18 
    The ratio of the area of triangle ABC to the area of the triangle whose sides are equal to the medians of triangle ABC is
    a   5 : 1
     5 : 3
     7 : 3
     4 : 3
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.19 
    In Madhubani, there are 10 cinema halls and n pubs. A group of tourists spent a few days at Madhubani and visited the cinema halls and the pubs during their stay. At the end of their stay it turned out that in all, each cinema hall was visited exactly by 4 tourists and each pub was visited exactly by 6 tourists. Given that each tourist visited exactly 5 cinema halls and 3 pubs, find the value of n.
    a   3
     4
     8
     6
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.20 
    The average of 'n' consecutive integers is 'x' and the average of the next 'm' consecutive integers is (x + 8). Which of the following represents an appropriate relation between 'm' and 'n'?
    a   m + n = 16
     n - m = 16
     
     
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.21 
    Total number of isosceles triangles (excluding equilateral triangles) with integer sides if length of no side exceeds 10 units is
    a   45
     90
     75
     65
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.22 
    The coordinates of the vertices of a triangle are (0, 0), (3, 3) and (0, 6). The radius of the circumcircle of the triangle is
    a   2
     4
     
     3
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.23 
    V is an 8-digit number containing 7 zeroes. If V2 is a sixteen-digit number, then how many different values of V are possible?
    a   3
     6
     7
     5
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.24 
    There were two groups - A and B - in a tournament. Both the groups had an equal number of teams. In the first round each team played a match with every other team in the same group. Had 9 teams were shifted from group A to group B, the number of matches in the first round of the tournament would have been 9 more. The total number of teams that participated in the tournament is
    a   10
     12
     24
     Data Insufficient
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.25 
    The are two milk-water solutions namely S1 and S2. The ratio of milk to water in S1 and S2 is 2 : 3 and 4 : 5 respectively. These two solutions are mixed in the ratio 6 : 7 and the resulting mixture is then sold at Rs. 30 per litre. If the cost price of pure milk is Rs. 40 per litre, then what is the profit percentage? (Assume that water comes free of cost.)
    a   72
     71.68
     70.83
     76.92
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.26 
    The sum of two numbers is 27 and their H.C.F. is 3. How many such pairs of numbers are possible?
    a   2
     3
     4
     5
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.27 
    Vijay went from A to B at a certain speed and came back to A from B at a speed that was 4 times the speed at which he went from A to B. The entire journey took 3 hr. Had Vijay come back at a speed that was only half the speed at which he actually returned, how long would it have taken him for the entire journey?
    a   6 hr
     4.5 hr
     4.2 hr
     3.6 hr
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.28 
    A man divided his circular piece of land, measuring 1100 sq.m, between his two sons. He gave his elder son a square piece of land within the circular piece. He gave his younger son the remaining part around the square. However, he compensated his younger son for this awkward shaped land by giving him 20% more land than what he gave to his elder son. What is the length of the side of the square-piece land?
    a   
     22 m
     25 m
     None of these
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.29 
    For how many positive integers V less than 15, is V! + (V + 1)! + (V + 2)! an integral multiple of 36?
    a   12
     10
     9
     11
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.30 
    a   2999000
     5998000
     4498500
     2249250
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : c

    Q.31 
    Seven distinct integers are picked up at random from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11}. What is the probability that 5 is the second smallest number out of the chosen numbers?
    a    4/55
     3/55
     2/55
     2/33
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.32 
    How many of the first 883 natural numbers contain at least one 7 as their digits?
    a   278
     250
     249
     258
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.33 
    A group of equally efficient people was assigned a piece of work. The work was started by one person within the group. After 't' hours, another person joined the first person who had started the work. After another 't' hours, one more person joined the existing two people, and this process continued till the completion of the work. It is known that the last person worked for 't' hours. It is also known that the work would have been completed in 24 hrs, had all of them started simultaneously. The payment made to each of them is proportional to the work done by them. If the first person received eleven times as much as the last person, in how much time was the work completed?
    a   44 hours
     48 hours
     72 hours
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.34 
    a   343400
     171700
     515100
     333300
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The BCCI has devised a grade system for cricket players. The players will be placed in four grades, I to IV. The more the points, the better the grade. Grades are assigned based on points, awarded on the basis of performance considering certain parameters. The following information gives relation between points and grades:
    A player with points more than 15000 is assigned Grade I.
    A Player with points between 10001 to 15000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade II.
    A Player with points between 5000 to 10000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade III.
    A Player with points less than 5000 is assigned Grade IV.

    The following table gives partial information regarding the parameters that are taken into account for awarding points for a few Indian players. Blank cells indicate missing data.

    For the grading system,
    1 run = 1 point, 1 wicket = 20 points, 1 catch = 3 points
    In addition, there is a bonus point system as well:
    1 century = 50 bonus points, one 5-wicket haul = 50 bonus point.
    Additional information given below is available to fill up the blank cells.
    I. Tendulkar has scored more runs than Ganguly.
    II. Dravid has scored more runs than Sehwag.
    III. Kumble has taken the highest number of wickets, which is twice the number of wickets taken by Zaheer.
    IV. Dravid has taken the highest number of catches.
    V. Number of catches taken by Laxman is equal to half the number of catches taken by Dravid.
    Q.35 
    Laxman is in Grade
    a   II
     III
     IV
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The BCCI has devised a grade system for cricket players. The players will be placed in four grades, I to IV. The more the points, the better the grade. Grades are assigned based on points, awarded on the basis of performance considering certain parameters. The following information gives relation between points and grades:
    A player with points more than 15000 is assigned Grade I.
    A Player with points between 10001 to 15000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade II.
    A Player with points between 5000 to 10000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade III.
    A Player with points less than 5000 is assigned Grade IV.

    The following table gives partial information regarding the parameters that are taken into account for awarding points for a few Indian players. Blank cells indicate missing data.

    For the grading system,
    1 run = 1 point, 1 wicket = 20 points, 1 catch = 3 points
    In addition, there is a bonus point system as well:
    1 century = 50 bonus points, one 5-wicket haul = 50 bonus point.
    Additional information given below is available to fill up the blank cells.
    I. Tendulkar has scored more runs than Ganguly.
    II. Dravid has scored more runs than Sehwag.
    III. Kumble has taken the highest number of wickets, which is twice the number of wickets taken by Zaheer.
    IV. Dravid has taken the highest number of catches.
    V. Number of catches taken by Laxman is equal to half the number of catches taken by Dravid.
    Q.36 
    If it is given that the total points of Ganguly is greater than that of Tendulkar, then the number of centuries scored by Ganguly cannot be less than
    a   31
     29
     30
     35
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The BCCI has devised a grade system for cricket players. The players will be placed in four grades, I to IV. The more the points, the better the grade. Grades are assigned based on points, awarded on the basis of performance considering certain parameters. The following information gives relation between points and grades:
    A player with points more than 15000 is assigned Grade I.
    A Player with points between 10001 to 15000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade II.
    A Player with points between 5000 to 10000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade III.
    A Player with points less than 5000 is assigned Grade IV.

    The following table gives partial information regarding the parameters that are taken into account for awarding points for a few Indian players. Blank cells indicate missing data.

    For the grading system,
    1 run = 1 point, 1 wicket = 20 points, 1 catch = 3 points
    In addition, there is a bonus point system as well:
    1 century = 50 bonus points, one 5-wicket haul = 50 bonus point.
    Additional information given below is available to fill up the blank cells.
    I. Tendulkar has scored more runs than Ganguly.
    II. Dravid has scored more runs than Sehwag.
    III. Kumble has taken the highest number of wickets, which is twice the number of wickets taken by Zaheer.
    IV. Dravid has taken the highest number of catches.
    V. Number of catches taken by Laxman is equal to half the number of catches taken by Dravid.
    Q.37 
    The number of players who can be in grade IV cannot be more than
    a   3
     4
     2
     1
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The BCCI has devised a grade system for cricket players. The players will be placed in four grades, I to IV. The more the points, the better the grade. Grades are assigned based on points, awarded on the basis of performance considering certain parameters. The following information gives relation between points and grades:
    A player with points more than 15000 is assigned Grade I.
    A Player with points between 10001 to 15000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade II.
    A Player with points between 5000 to 10000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade III.
    A Player with points less than 5000 is assigned Grade IV.

    The following table gives partial information regarding the parameters that are taken into account for awarding points for a few Indian players. Blank cells indicate missing data.

    For the grading system,
    1 run = 1 point, 1 wicket = 20 points, 1 catch = 3 points
    In addition, there is a bonus point system as well:
    1 century = 50 bonus points, one 5-wicket haul = 50 bonus point.
    Additional information given below is available to fill up the blank cells.
    I. Tendulkar has scored more runs than Ganguly.
    II. Dravid has scored more runs than Sehwag.
    III. Kumble has taken the highest number of wickets, which is twice the number of wickets taken by Zaheer.
    IV. Dravid has taken the highest number of catches.
    V. Number of catches taken by Laxman is equal to half the number of catches taken by Dravid.
    Q.38 
    If Sehwag is in Grade II, then the number of runs scored by Sehwag could not be less than
    a   8351
     Sehwag cannot be in Grade II
     8350
     None of these
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production at a cloth manufacturing plant involves the following stages:
    W - Warehouse; A - Cutting; B - Rolling; C - Bleaching; D - Accumulating ; E - Charging (Input) The sequence of working for a unit of product is E-D-C-B-A. After this, the unit gets stored in the warehouse as the final product. Transfer between different stages of production takes negligible time. Transfer of the semi-processed units between any two stages of production occurs at the end of 1-hr shift, and 1-hr is the processing time during each stage. Final products are transferred out of warehouse only at end of day i.e. at 4 : 00 p.m. The warehouse can store any number of units i.e. it does not have capacity constraint. Following is the work capacity of cloth manufacturing plant during different shifts of the day:
    At 10:00 a.m., A, B, C, D and E stages have 1, 1, 4, 6 and 2 units respectively. There are no units kept in the warehouse at 10 : 00 a.m. 'Outstanding' is defined as the number of unfinished units at any stage of production which cannot be processed due to capacity constraint. If capacity permits, the outstanding of any shift can be processed during the next shift.
    Q.39 
    What is the maximum possible number of final products that can be stored in the warehouse at 3:00 p.m.?
    a   12
     15
     11
     13
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production at a cloth manufacturing plant involves the following stages:
    W - Warehouse; A - Cutting; B - Rolling; C - Bleaching; D - Accumulating ; E - Charging (Input) The sequence of working for a unit of product is E-D-C-B-A. After this, the unit gets stored in the warehouse as the final product. Transfer between different stages of production takes negligible time. Transfer of the semi-processed units between any two stages of production occurs at the end of 1-hr shift, and 1-hr is the processing time during each stage. Final products are transferred out of warehouse only at end of day i.e. at 4 : 00 p.m. The warehouse can store any number of units i.e. it does not have capacity constraint. Following is the work capacity of cloth manufacturing plant during different shifts of the day:
    At 10:00 a.m., A, B, C, D and E stages have 1, 1, 4, 6 and 2 units respectively. There are no units kept in the warehouse at 10 : 00 a.m. 'Outstanding' is defined as the number of unfinished units at any stage of production which cannot be processed due to capacity constraint. If capacity permits, the outstanding of any shift can be processed during the next shift.
    Q.40 
    Which stage of production will encounter 'Outstanding' for the first time?
    a   A
     B
     C
     D
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production at a cloth manufacturing plant involves the following stages:
    W - Warehouse; A - Cutting; B - Rolling; C - Bleaching; D - Accumulating ; E - Charging (Input) The sequence of working for a unit of product is E-D-C-B-A. After this, the unit gets stored in the warehouse as the final product. Transfer between different stages of production takes negligible time. Transfer of the semi-processed units between any two stages of production occurs at the end of 1-hr shift, and 1-hr is the processing time during each stage. Final products are transferred out of warehouse only at end of day i.e. at 4 : 00 p.m. The warehouse can store any number of units i.e. it does not have capacity constraint. Following is the work capacity of cloth manufacturing plant during different shifts of the day:
    At 10:00 a.m., A, B, C, D and E stages have 1, 1, 4, 6 and 2 units respectively. There are no units kept in the warehouse at 10 : 00 a.m. 'Outstanding' is defined as the number of unfinished units at any stage of production which cannot be processed due to capacity constraint. If capacity permits, the outstanding of any shift can be processed during the next shift.
    Q.41 
    Had there been only two stages of production namely E and D, what would have been the maximum possible number of final products that can be stored in the warehouse at 4 : 00 p.m.? (D is the final stage of production and at 10 : 00 a.m., E and D have 2 and 6 units of product respectively.)
    a   22
     23
     21
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    By using the same logic used in the previous questions, the required answer comes out to be 23.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production at a cloth manufacturing plant involves the following stages:
    W - Warehouse; A - Cutting; B - Rolling; C - Bleaching; D - Accumulating ; E - Charging (Input) The sequence of working for a unit of product is E-D-C-B-A. After this, the unit gets stored in the warehouse as the final product. Transfer between different stages of production takes negligible time. Transfer of the semi-processed units between any two stages of production occurs at the end of 1-hr shift, and 1-hr is the processing time during each stage. Final products are transferred out of warehouse only at end of day i.e. at 4 : 00 p.m. The warehouse can store any number of units i.e. it does not have capacity constraint. Following is the work capacity of cloth manufacturing plant during different shifts of the day:
    At 10:00 a.m., A, B, C, D and E stages have 1, 1, 4, 6 and 2 units respectively. There are no units kept in the warehouse at 10 : 00 a.m. 'Outstanding' is defined as the number of unfinished units at any stage of production which cannot be processed due to capacity constraint. If capacity permits, the outstanding of any shift can be processed during the next shift.
    Q.42 
    Had there been only two stages of production namely B and A, what would have been the maximum possible number of final products that can be stored in the warehouse at 2 : 00 p.m.? (A is the final stage of production and B is the input, with 1 unit of product at each stage at 10 : 00 a.m.)
    a   8
     13
     10
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    By using the same logic used in the previous questions, the required answer comes out to be 8.
    Correct Answer : a

    Direction for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The graph given below shows data related to milk production (in million tonnes) in India during the period from 1981-82 to 2001-02. (1 tonne = 1000 kg)
    Q.43 
    In 1993-1994, India exported 22% of its total milk production and that was equal to 17% of the world milk export in that year. What was the world milk export (in million tonnes) in 1994-95?
    a   78.42
     7.842
     784.2
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Since the quantity of export of milk for the year 1994- 1995 is not known.
    Hence, the answer cannot be determined.
    Correct Answer : d

    Direction for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The graph given below shows data related to milk production (in million tonnes) in India during the period from 1981-82 to 2001-02. (1 tonne = 1000 kg)
    Q.44 
    If price of milk in 1985-86 was Rs. 12 per kg, then the value of total milk produced in India in the same year was
    a   Rs. 52.8 × 1010
     Rs. 528 × 1010
     Rs. 5.28 × 1010
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    The required value = 44 × 106 × 103 × 12 = Rs. 52.8 × 1010.
    Correct Answer : a

    Direction for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The graph given below shows data related to milk production (in million tonnes) in India during the period from 1981-82 to 2001-02. (1 tonne = 1000 kg)
    Q.45 
    Total milk production in India during the period from 1980-81 to 1986-87 as a percentage of total milk production in India during in the period from 1984-85 to 1997-98 was closest to
    a   35%
     54%
     62%
     13%
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : a

    Direction for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The graph given below shows data related to milk production (in million tonnes) in India during the period from 1981-82 to 2001-02. (1 tonne = 1000 kg)
    Q.46 
    In how many years during the period from 1980-81 to 1997-98 was the production of milk in India more than 46.5 million tonnes?
    a   11 years
     10 years
     12 years
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    By observation, the required number of years comes out to be 11.
    Correct Answer : a

    Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
    There are four companies - CCA, T & T, Birla Tea and LLL - in Udyog Nager. The following information, recorded during the FY 2014-15, is known about these four companies:

    I. The local sales of LLL were eleven times the profits of T & T.
    II. The sum of exports of Birla Tea and LLL is equal to half the equity base of CCA.
    III. The sum of equity base of Birla Tea and the local sales of T & T is equal to five times the exports of T & T.
    IV. The profit of LLL = the local sales of CCA - the exports of Birla Tea.
    V. The profit of CCA is equal to the average profits of T & T and LLL.
    VI. The total profit of all the companies put together was Rs. 100 crore.
    VII. The local sales of Biral Tea was 1.25 times the exports of CCA.
    VIII. The equity base of T & T = Total exports of all four companies - Rs. 50 crore.
    IX. The equity base of LLL = 7 x (Profit of LLL + Profit of Birla Tea - Profit of T & T).

    The following are some additional information regarding the four aforementioned parameters for the given companies:

    1. Local sales of LLL = Rs. 110 crore
    2. Equity base of CCA = Rs. 500 crore
    3. Local sales of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    4. Equity base of Birla Tea = Rs. 450 crore
    5. Exports of T & T = Rs. 120 crore
    6. Profit of Birla Tea = Rs. 40 crore
    7. Exports of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    Q.47 
    In FY 2014-15, the equity base of LLL was
    a   Rs. 500 crore
     Rs. 400 crore
     Rs. 450 crore
     Rs. 420 crore
    Solution:

    Rs. 420 crore.
    Correct Answer : d

    Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
    There are four companies - CCA, T & T, Birla Tea and LLL - in Udyog Nager. The following information, recorded during the FY 2014-15, is known about these four companies:

    I. The local sales of LLL were eleven times the profits of T & T.
    II. The sum of exports of Birla Tea and LLL is equal to half the equity base of CCA.
    III. The sum of equity base of Birla Tea and the local sales of T & T is equal to five times the exports of T & T.
    IV. The profit of LLL = the local sales of CCA - the exports of Birla Tea.
    V. The profit of CCA is equal to the average profits of T & T and LLL.
    VI. The total profit of all the companies put together was Rs. 100 crore.
    VII. The local sales of Biral Tea was 1.25 times the exports of CCA.
    VIII. The equity base of T & T = Total exports of all four companies - Rs. 50 crore.
    IX. The equity base of LLL = 7 x (Profit of LLL + Profit of Birla Tea - Profit of T & T).

    The following are some additional information regarding the four aforementioned parameters for the given companies:

    1. Local sales of LLL = Rs. 110 crore
    2. Equity base of CCA = Rs. 500 crore
    3. Local sales of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    4. Equity base of Birla Tea = Rs. 450 crore
    5. Exports of T & T = Rs. 120 crore
    6. Profit of Birla Tea = Rs. 40 crore
    7. Exports of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    Q.48 
    In FY 2014-15, the profit of LLL was
    a   Rs. 30 crore
     Rs. 40 crore
     Rs. 20 crore
     Rs. 10 crore
    Solution:

    Rs. 30 crore.
    Correct Answer : a

    Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
    There are four companies - CCA, T & T, Birla Tea and LLL - in Udyog Nager. The following information, recorded during the FY 2014-15, is known about these four companies:

    I. The local sales of LLL were eleven times the profits of T & T.
    II. The sum of exports of Birla Tea and LLL is equal to half the equity base of CCA.
    III. The sum of equity base of Birla Tea and the local sales of T & T is equal to five times the exports of T & T.
    IV. The profit of LLL = the local sales of CCA - the exports of Birla Tea.
    V. The profit of CCA is equal to the average profits of T & T and LLL.
    VI. The total profit of all the companies put together was Rs. 100 crore.
    VII. The local sales of Biral Tea was 1.25 times the exports of CCA.
    VIII. The equity base of T & T = Total exports of all four companies - Rs. 50 crore.
    IX. The equity base of LLL = 7 x (Profit of LLL + Profit of Birla Tea - Profit of T & T).

    The following are some additional information regarding the four aforementioned parameters for the given companies:

    1. Local sales of LLL = Rs. 110 crore
    2. Equity base of CCA = Rs. 500 crore
    3. Local sales of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    4. Equity base of Birla Tea = Rs. 450 crore
    5. Exports of T & T = Rs. 120 crore
    6. Profit of Birla Tea = Rs. 40 crore
    7. Exports of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    Q.49 
    In FY 2014-15, the equity base of CCA was greater than the equity base of T & T by
    a   10%
     20%
     25%
     50%
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : c

    Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
    There are four companies - CCA, T & T, Birla Tea and LLL - in Udyog Nager. The following information, recorded during the FY 2014-15, is known about these four companies:

    I. The local sales of LLL were eleven times the profits of T & T.
    II. The sum of exports of Birla Tea and LLL is equal to half the equity base of CCA.
    III. The sum of equity base of Birla Tea and the local sales of T & T is equal to five times the exports of T & T.
    IV. The profit of LLL = the local sales of CCA - the exports of Birla Tea.
    V. The profit of CCA is equal to the average profits of T & T and LLL.
    VI. The total profit of all the companies put together was Rs. 100 crore.
    VII. The local sales of Biral Tea was 1.25 times the exports of CCA.
    VIII. The equity base of T & T = Total exports of all four companies - Rs. 50 crore.
    IX. The equity base of LLL = 7 x (Profit of LLL + Profit of Birla Tea - Profit of T & T).

    The following are some additional information regarding the four aforementioned parameters for the given companies:

    1. Local sales of LLL = Rs. 110 crore
    2. Equity base of CCA = Rs. 500 crore
    3. Local sales of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    4. Equity base of Birla Tea = Rs. 450 crore
    5. Exports of T & T = Rs. 120 crore
    6. Profit of Birla Tea = Rs. 40 crore
    7. Exports of Birla Tea = Rs. 100 crore
    Q.50 
    In FY 2014-15, the total local sales of all the four companies put together as a percentage of total equity base of all four companies put together was
    a   36%
     28%
     32%
     33%
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : b

    Sec 2

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Edith Wharton demonstrates in The Age of Innocence, as she does in her other texts, how life has influenced her. Her ability to see the ugliness within the beautiful sounds morbid, but her realistic views allowed her to see what she believed was wrong with society. In the most basic analysis, Wharton wrote The Age of Innocence from her perspective of old New York society. Rather than focusing on the familiar argument of male dominance over women, she believed the problems women faced in America had more to do with society in general than with men specifically. Most people in society believed they had a duty to follow society's rules or conventions. The origin of these rules is uncertain and unclear, but that is not the issue. What made these rules problematic was how they afforded both men and women little freedom from society's conventions. Both sexes expected certain behaviors from men while women were to behave in an "appropriate" manner as well. Men were to have only certain professions such as banking or law, not politics, because these professions were seen as more distinguished and thus, acceptable. Men were additionally expected not to fail in their expected duties. Women acting according to society's conventions portrayed innocent wives, mothers and daughters. As a result, people had unrealistic expectations of each other, and the treatment people received tended to be unfair regardless of gender.

    Along with unfair and unrealistic treatment, the unspoken words of communication were this society's language. Men had extramarital love affairs in secret to avoid disgracing their wives and the rest of their family, but having these affairs was acceptable as long as it remained unspoken and unmentioned in society. Unlike men, a woman having a love affair was scandalous because such behavior from a woman was not considered innocent or virginal. As a result, it would always turn into a public matter regardless of the circumstances. Sometimes the mere rumor of a supposed affair was enough to ruin a woman's reputation for the rest of her life.

    Where does this leave women? According to Wharton, men are not solely to blame, but how do women find power and freedom in a society that does not recognize their right to be free? How does a woman acquire the freedom to define her own identity when only one ideal woman figure, the innocent virgin, is allowed? Is it even possible? Wharton doesn't seem to think so, or at least she does not believe a woman is able to exercise the freedom she deserves by America's standards at the turn of the 19th-century.

    In an attempt to overcome these restrictive American morals, Wharton searched outside America and the 19th century to empower The Age of Innocence's two main female figures, May Welland and Ellen Olenska, with the characteristics of freedom and self identification. While Wharton believed European society, particularly French society, had a better understanding of the individual spirit, she probed further to create her female characters' identities by turning to her interests in Greek and Roman mythology.
    Q.51 
    Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
    a   Men in America were granted more power and freedom by both men and women because of their gender.
     Women who wanted to overcome their entrapment had to struggle much harder than men to become powerful.
     Women struggled for power in a society which resisted change and the empowerment of women.
     All of the above
    Solution:
    Refer to the lines, "Rather than focusing on the familiar...more to do with society in general..." This line supports option (a). Options (b) and (c) are negated because the passage only asks the question of how women can find power and freedom but it does not suggest that women either have struggled for power or have had to struggle harder than men.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Edith Wharton demonstrates in The Age of Innocence, as she does in her other texts, how life has influenced her. Her ability to see the ugliness within the beautiful sounds morbid, but her realistic views allowed her to see what she believed was wrong with society. In the most basic analysis, Wharton wrote The Age of Innocence from her perspective of old New York society. Rather than focusing on the familiar argument of male dominance over women, she believed the problems women faced in America had more to do with society in general than with men specifically. Most people in society believed they had a duty to follow society's rules or conventions. The origin of these rules is uncertain and unclear, but that is not the issue. What made these rules problematic was how they afforded both men and women little freedom from society's conventions. Both sexes expected certain behaviors from men while women were to behave in an "appropriate" manner as well. Men were to have only certain professions such as banking or law, not politics, because these professions were seen as more distinguished and thus, acceptable. Men were additionally expected not to fail in their expected duties. Women acting according to society's conventions portrayed innocent wives, mothers and daughters. As a result, people had unrealistic expectations of each other, and the treatment people received tended to be unfair regardless of gender.

    Along with unfair and unrealistic treatment, the unspoken words of communication were this society's language. Men had extramarital love affairs in secret to avoid disgracing their wives and the rest of their family, but having these affairs was acceptable as long as it remained unspoken and unmentioned in society. Unlike men, a woman having a love affair was scandalous because such behavior from a woman was not considered innocent or virginal. As a result, it would always turn into a public matter regardless of the circumstances. Sometimes the mere rumor of a supposed affair was enough to ruin a woman's reputation for the rest of her life.

    Where does this leave women? According to Wharton, men are not solely to blame, but how do women find power and freedom in a society that does not recognize their right to be free? How does a woman acquire the freedom to define her own identity when only one ideal woman figure, the innocent virgin, is allowed? Is it even possible? Wharton doesn't seem to think so, or at least she does not believe a woman is able to exercise the freedom she deserves by America's standards at the turn of the 19th-century.

    In an attempt to overcome these restrictive American morals, Wharton searched outside America and the 19th century to empower The Age of Innocence's two main female figures, May Welland and Ellen Olenska, with the characteristics of freedom and self identification. While Wharton believed European society, particularly French society, had a better understanding of the individual spirit, she probed further to create her female characters' identities by turning to her interests in Greek and Roman mythology.
    Q.52 
    Which of the following is true of the 19th century American society?
    a   Women in the 19th century America were equal to men and did not naturally desire subordination.
     Due to the traditional expectations set for women prior to the 19th century, very few women had the same opportunities as men.
     Women's acceptance of the traditional roles began to dissipate in the beginning of the 19th century.
     The 19th century American society was much to be blamed for the subordinate stature of women.
    Solution:
    The passage suggests that the Age of Innocence is relevant to the 19th century. The first and third paragraphs suggest that it is not only the men of the 19th century who are responsible for the plight of women but the society in general. This makes option (d) correct. Option (a) contradicts the passage as it clearly states that the society gave more freedom to men, as compared to women. Option (b) is negated because the passage does not talk of the traditional expectations before 19th century. Option (c) is also in contradiction to the passage as it clearly states that the author does not believe ?a woman is able to exercise the freedom she deserves??
    Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Edith Wharton demonstrates in The Age of Innocence, as she does in her other texts, how life has influenced her. Her ability to see the ugliness within the beautiful sounds morbid, but her realistic views allowed her to see what she believed was wrong with society. In the most basic analysis, Wharton wrote The Age of Innocence from her perspective of old New York society. Rather than focusing on the familiar argument of male dominance over women, she believed the problems women faced in America had more to do with society in general than with men specifically. Most people in society believed they had a duty to follow society's rules or conventions. The origin of these rules is uncertain and unclear, but that is not the issue. What made these rules problematic was how they afforded both men and women little freedom from society's conventions. Both sexes expected certain behaviors from men while women were to behave in an "appropriate" manner as well. Men were to have only certain professions such as banking or law, not politics, because these professions were seen as more distinguished and thus, acceptable. Men were additionally expected not to fail in their expected duties. Women acting according to society's conventions portrayed innocent wives, mothers and daughters. As a result, people had unrealistic expectations of each other, and the treatment people received tended to be unfair regardless of gender.

    Along with unfair and unrealistic treatment, the unspoken words of communication were this society's language. Men had extramarital love affairs in secret to avoid disgracing their wives and the rest of their family, but having these affairs was acceptable as long as it remained unspoken and unmentioned in society. Unlike men, a woman having a love affair was scandalous because such behavior from a woman was not considered innocent or virginal. As a result, it would always turn into a public matter regardless of the circumstances. Sometimes the mere rumor of a supposed affair was enough to ruin a woman's reputation for the rest of her life.

    Where does this leave women? According to Wharton, men are not solely to blame, but how do women find power and freedom in a society that does not recognize their right to be free? How does a woman acquire the freedom to define her own identity when only one ideal woman figure, the innocent virgin, is allowed? Is it even possible? Wharton doesn't seem to think so, or at least she does not believe a woman is able to exercise the freedom she deserves by America's standards at the turn of the 19th-century.

    In an attempt to overcome these restrictive American morals, Wharton searched outside America and the 19th century to empower The Age of Innocence's two main female figures, May Welland and Ellen Olenska, with the characteristics of freedom and self identification. While Wharton believed European society, particularly French society, had a better understanding of the individual spirit, she probed further to create her female characters' identities by turning to her interests in Greek and Roman mythology.
    Q.53 
    How were people, regardless of their gender, unfairly treated by the society?
    A. Men were also restricted by their expected role in the society.
    B. Both men and women had unrealistic expectations of each other.
    C. People, in their misguided belief that they had to follow the rules of society, neglected what they really wanted to do.
    a   A and B
     A, B and C
     Only B
     B and C
    Solution:
    Statements A and B are supported by the passage as it states that both sexes expected certain behaviors from men and that people had unrealistic expectations of each other. The passage is silent on whether people neglected to do what they wanted to do or did it behind closed doors, thereby, negating statement C.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Edith Wharton demonstrates in The Age of Innocence, as she does in her other texts, how life has influenced her. Her ability to see the ugliness within the beautiful sounds morbid, but her realistic views allowed her to see what she believed was wrong with society. In the most basic analysis, Wharton wrote The Age of Innocence from her perspective of old New York society. Rather than focusing on the familiar argument of male dominance over women, she believed the problems women faced in America had more to do with society in general than with men specifically. Most people in society believed they had a duty to follow society's rules or conventions. The origin of these rules is uncertain and unclear, but that is not the issue. What made these rules problematic was how they afforded both men and women little freedom from society's conventions. Both sexes expected certain behaviors from men while women were to behave in an "appropriate" manner as well. Men were to have only certain professions such as banking or law, not politics, because these professions were seen as more distinguished and thus, acceptable. Men were additionally expected not to fail in their expected duties. Women acting according to society's conventions portrayed innocent wives, mothers and daughters. As a result, people had unrealistic expectations of each other, and the treatment people received tended to be unfair regardless of gender.

    Along with unfair and unrealistic treatment, the unspoken words of communication were this society's language. Men had extramarital love affairs in secret to avoid disgracing their wives and the rest of their family, but having these affairs was acceptable as long as it remained unspoken and unmentioned in society. Unlike men, a woman having a love affair was scandalous because such behavior from a woman was not considered innocent or virginal. As a result, it would always turn into a public matter regardless of the circumstances. Sometimes the mere rumor of a supposed affair was enough to ruin a woman's reputation for the rest of her life.

    Where does this leave women? According to Wharton, men are not solely to blame, but how do women find power and freedom in a society that does not recognize their right to be free? How does a woman acquire the freedom to define her own identity when only one ideal woman figure, the innocent virgin, is allowed? Is it even possible? Wharton doesn't seem to think so, or at least she does not believe a woman is able to exercise the freedom she deserves by America's standards at the turn of the 19th-century.

    In an attempt to overcome these restrictive American morals, Wharton searched outside America and the 19th century to empower The Age of Innocence's two main female figures, May Welland and Ellen Olenska, with the characteristics of freedom and self identification. While Wharton believed European society, particularly French society, had a better understanding of the individual spirit, she probed further to create her female characters' identities by turning to her interests in Greek and Roman mythology.
    Q.54 
    The Age of Innocence attempts to
    a   expose the chauvinistic outlook of the 19th century men.
     describe the idiosyncrasies of the 19th century New York society.
     give a realistic view of the 19th century New York society.
     expound the cause of feminism in the 19th century New York society.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is negated because the passage states that women were victims, not because of the chauvinistic attitude of men, but because of the society's conventions. Men too were a victim of the unrealistic expectations imposed by the society. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage does not talk of the idiosyncrasies of people of the 19th century but the expectations of people from both the sexes as to how to behave and the causes behind them. Option (d) is ruled out because the passage does not talk of feminism but the need for women empowerment. Option (c) is the correct answer because the passage gives a true and objective account of the 19th century New York society.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    New justifications have now appeared in place of the antiquated, obsolete, religious ones. These new justifications are just as inadequate as the old ones, but as they are new their futility cannot immediately be recognized by the majority of men. Besides this, those who enjoy power propagate these new sophistries and support them so skillfully that they seem irrefutable even to many of those who suffer from the oppression these theories seek to justify. These new justifications are termed 'scientific'. But by the term 'scientific' is understood just what was formerly understood by the term 'religious': just as formerly everything called 'religious' was held to be unquestionable simply because it was called religious, so now all that is called 'scientific' is held to be unquestionable. In the present case the obsolete religious justification of violence which consisted in the recognition of the supernatural personality of the God-ordained ruler ('there is no power but of God') has been superseded by the 'scientific' justification which puts forward, first, the assertion that because the coercion of man by man has existed in all ages, it follows that such coercion must continue to exist. This assertion that people should continue to live as they have done throughout past ages rather than as their reason and conscience indicate, is what 'science' calls 'the historic law'. A further 'scientific' justification lies in the statement that as among plants and wild beasts there is a constant struggle for existence which always results in the survival of the fittest, a similar struggle should be carried on among human beings-beings, that is, who are gifted with intelligence and love; faculties lacking in the creatures subject to the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest. Such is the second 'scientific' justification.

    The third, most important, and unfortunately most widespread justification is, at bottom, the age-old religious one just a little altered: that in public life the suppression of some for the protection of the majority cannot be avoided-so that coercion is unavoidable however desirable reliance on love alone might be in human intercourse. The only difference in this justification by pseudo-science consists in the fact that, to the question why such and such people and not others have the right to decide against whom violence may and must be used, pseudo-science now gives a different reply to that given by religion-which declared that the right to decide was valid because it was pronounced by persons possessed of divine power. 'Science' says that these decisions represent the will of the people, which under a constitutional form of government is supposed to find expression in all the decisions and actions of those who are at the helm at the moment.

    Such are the scientific justifications of the principle of coercion. They are not merely weak but absolutely invalid, yet they are so much needed by those who occupy privileged positions that they believe in them as blindly as they formerly believed in the immaculate conception, and propagate them just as confidently. And the unfortunate majority of men bound to toil is so dazzled by the pomp with which these 'scientific truths' are presented, that under this new influence it accepts these scientific stupidities for holy truth, just as it formerly accepted the pseudo-religious justifications; and it continues to submit to the present holders of power who are just as hard-hearted but rather more numerous than before.
    Q.55 
    Which of the following is true according to the passage?
    a   In former times, the chief method of justifying the use of violence was by claiming a divine right for the rulers.
     In former times, rulers decided what is moral or immoral.
     In former times, the chief method of justifying morality was by adhering to the religious authority.
     In former times, science had no role to play in people's decisions.
    Solution:
    The passage clearly states that in former times, there was a religious justification of violence which consisted in the recognition of the supernatural personality of the God-ordained ruler. Hence, option (a) is correct. Options (b) and (c) are negated because the passage does not talk of morality. Though the passage states that in former times religion was unquestionable, the author does not comment on the existence of science as a factor influencing people's decision. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    New justifications have now appeared in place of the antiquated, obsolete, religious ones. These new justifications are just as inadequate as the old ones, but as they are new their futility cannot immediately be recognized by the majority of men. Besides this, those who enjoy power propagate these new sophistries and support them so skillfully that they seem irrefutable even to many of those who suffer from the oppression these theories seek to justify. These new justifications are termed 'scientific'. But by the term 'scientific' is understood just what was formerly understood by the term 'religious': just as formerly everything called 'religious' was held to be unquestionable simply because it was called religious, so now all that is called 'scientific' is held to be unquestionable. In the present case the obsolete religious justification of violence which consisted in the recognition of the supernatural personality of the God-ordained ruler ('there is no power but of God') has been superseded by the 'scientific' justification which puts forward, first, the assertion that because the coercion of man by man has existed in all ages, it follows that such coercion must continue to exist. This assertion that people should continue to live as they have done throughout past ages rather than as their reason and conscience indicate, is what 'science' calls 'the historic law'. A further 'scientific' justification lies in the statement that as among plants and wild beasts there is a constant struggle for existence which always results in the survival of the fittest, a similar struggle should be carried on among human beings-beings, that is, who are gifted with intelligence and love; faculties lacking in the creatures subject to the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest. Such is the second 'scientific' justification.

    The third, most important, and unfortunately most widespread justification is, at bottom, the age-old religious one just a little altered: that in public life the suppression of some for the protection of the majority cannot be avoided-so that coercion is unavoidable however desirable reliance on love alone might be in human intercourse. The only difference in this justification by pseudo-science consists in the fact that, to the question why such and such people and not others have the right to decide against whom violence may and must be used, pseudo-science now gives a different reply to that given by religion-which declared that the right to decide was valid because it was pronounced by persons possessed of divine power. 'Science' says that these decisions represent the will of the people, which under a constitutional form of government is supposed to find expression in all the decisions and actions of those who are at the helm at the moment.

    Such are the scientific justifications of the principle of coercion. They are not merely weak but absolutely invalid, yet they are so much needed by those who occupy privileged positions that they believe in them as blindly as they formerly believed in the immaculate conception, and propagate them just as confidently. And the unfortunate majority of men bound to toil is so dazzled by the pomp with which these 'scientific truths' are presented, that under this new influence it accepts these scientific stupidities for holy truth, just as it formerly accepted the pseudo-religious justifications; and it continues to submit to the present holders of power who are just as hard-hearted but rather more numerous than before.
    Q.56 
    The author is likely to agree with which of the following statements?
    a   People realize the senselessness and immorality of subordinating their wills to those of other people just like themselves.
     People unconsciously subordinate their wills to those of other people just like themselves.
     People have subordinated their wills to the scientific superstition just as they had once done to the religious one.
     People do not question anything that comes from either religion or science.
    Solution:
    The author states that as earlier everything termed religious was considered unquestionable, similarly now everything termed scientific is considered unquestionable. Options (a) and (c) are negated because the passage does not talk of people subordinating their wills to people just like themselves but to people with power. Option (d) is very vague as science and religion were unquestionable in different periods of time.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    New justifications have now appeared in place of the antiquated, obsolete, religious ones. These new justifications are just as inadequate as the old ones, but as they are new their futility cannot immediately be recognized by the majority of men. Besides this, those who enjoy power propagate these new sophistries and support them so skillfully that they seem irrefutable even to many of those who suffer from the oppression these theories seek to justify. These new justifications are termed 'scientific'. But by the term 'scientific' is understood just what was formerly understood by the term 'religious': just as formerly everything called 'religious' was held to be unquestionable simply because it was called religious, so now all that is called 'scientific' is held to be unquestionable. In the present case the obsolete religious justification of violence which consisted in the recognition of the supernatural personality of the God-ordained ruler ('there is no power but of God') has been superseded by the 'scientific' justification which puts forward, first, the assertion that because the coercion of man by man has existed in all ages, it follows that such coercion must continue to exist. This assertion that people should continue to live as they have done throughout past ages rather than as their reason and conscience indicate, is what 'science' calls 'the historic law'. A further 'scientific' justification lies in the statement that as among plants and wild beasts there is a constant struggle for existence which always results in the survival of the fittest, a similar struggle should be carried on among human beings-beings, that is, who are gifted with intelligence and love; faculties lacking in the creatures subject to the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest. Such is the second 'scientific' justification.

    The third, most important, and unfortunately most widespread justification is, at bottom, the age-old religious one just a little altered: that in public life the suppression of some for the protection of the majority cannot be avoided-so that coercion is unavoidable however desirable reliance on love alone might be in human intercourse. The only difference in this justification by pseudo-science consists in the fact that, to the question why such and such people and not others have the right to decide against whom violence may and must be used, pseudo-science now gives a different reply to that given by religion-which declared that the right to decide was valid because it was pronounced by persons possessed of divine power. 'Science' says that these decisions represent the will of the people, which under a constitutional form of government is supposed to find expression in all the decisions and actions of those who are at the helm at the moment.

    Such are the scientific justifications of the principle of coercion. They are not merely weak but absolutely invalid, yet they are so much needed by those who occupy privileged positions that they believe in them as blindly as they formerly believed in the immaculate conception, and propagate them just as confidently. And the unfortunate majority of men bound to toil is so dazzled by the pomp with which these 'scientific truths' are presented, that under this new influence it accepts these scientific stupidities for holy truth, just as it formerly accepted the pseudo-religious justifications; and it continues to submit to the present holders of power who are just as hard-hearted but rather more numerous than before.
    Q.57 
    Which of the following describes the tone of the author of the passage?
    a   Indignant
     Critical
     Cynical
     Sardonic
    Solution:
    The author disapproves of the 'justifications' being talked about in the passage. In the very beginning of the passage he rejects the 'new justifications' by stating that these are as inadequate as the old ones. In the last paragraph too, the author calls the 'scientific justifications of the principle of coercion' absolutely invalid. Hence, it can be inferred that he is critical of these justifications, making option (b) correct. 'Indignant' means feeling or showing anger because of something that is unfair or wrong. The author's arguments do not reflect anger. Option (c) is incorrect as 'cynical' means believing that people are generally selfish and dishonest. It is unrelated to the passage. Option (d) is incorrect because the author does not show an attitude of superiority but only disapproves of the scientific and religious justifications. Furthermore, there are no undertones of mockery in the passage.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    New justifications have now appeared in place of the antiquated, obsolete, religious ones. These new justifications are just as inadequate as the old ones, but as they are new their futility cannot immediately be recognized by the majority of men. Besides this, those who enjoy power propagate these new sophistries and support them so skillfully that they seem irrefutable even to many of those who suffer from the oppression these theories seek to justify. These new justifications are termed 'scientific'. But by the term 'scientific' is understood just what was formerly understood by the term 'religious': just as formerly everything called 'religious' was held to be unquestionable simply because it was called religious, so now all that is called 'scientific' is held to be unquestionable. In the present case the obsolete religious justification of violence which consisted in the recognition of the supernatural personality of the God-ordained ruler ('there is no power but of God') has been superseded by the 'scientific' justification which puts forward, first, the assertion that because the coercion of man by man has existed in all ages, it follows that such coercion must continue to exist. This assertion that people should continue to live as they have done throughout past ages rather than as their reason and conscience indicate, is what 'science' calls 'the historic law'. A further 'scientific' justification lies in the statement that as among plants and wild beasts there is a constant struggle for existence which always results in the survival of the fittest, a similar struggle should be carried on among human beings-beings, that is, who are gifted with intelligence and love; faculties lacking in the creatures subject to the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest. Such is the second 'scientific' justification.

    The third, most important, and unfortunately most widespread justification is, at bottom, the age-old religious one just a little altered: that in public life the suppression of some for the protection of the majority cannot be avoided-so that coercion is unavoidable however desirable reliance on love alone might be in human intercourse. The only difference in this justification by pseudo-science consists in the fact that, to the question why such and such people and not others have the right to decide against whom violence may and must be used, pseudo-science now gives a different reply to that given by religion-which declared that the right to decide was valid because it was pronounced by persons possessed of divine power. 'Science' says that these decisions represent the will of the people, which under a constitutional form of government is supposed to find expression in all the decisions and actions of those who are at the helm at the moment.

    Such are the scientific justifications of the principle of coercion. They are not merely weak but absolutely invalid, yet they are so much needed by those who occupy privileged positions that they believe in them as blindly as they formerly believed in the immaculate conception, and propagate them just as confidently. And the unfortunate majority of men bound to toil is so dazzled by the pomp with which these 'scientific truths' are presented, that under this new influence it accepts these scientific stupidities for holy truth, just as it formerly accepted the pseudo-religious justifications; and it continues to submit to the present holders of power who are just as hard-hearted but rather more numerous than before.
    Q.58 
    Which of the following can be seen as an example of coercion?
    A. Father says to his child, "You'll get a thick ear if you do that again."
    B. The mother, her eyes brimming over with tears, takes the child in her arms and murmurs lovingly, "Now, darling, is it kind to do that to Mummy?"
    C. Police to an accused, "Do this, that and the other or you will go to prison."
    a   A and C
     B and C
     A and B
     All of the above
    Solution:
    All are forms of coercion. Where A and C are methods that involve violence, statement B uses persuasion and guilt in order to coerce.
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.59 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

    A. Indeed, Ofsted data show that, as a result of low expectations allowing them to coast, poor children in good schools in affluent areas suffer worse than those in excellent schools in inner-city areas.
    B. But creating a more socially integrated education system should be an end in itself, given the critical role schools play in developing the citizens and parents of the future.
    C. Creating more socially mixed state schools is by no means a panacea for closing the attainment gap for children from poor backgrounds.
    D. The road to a more cohesive, tolerant society must surely start in our schools: we can't simply hope it will somehow materialise when a lack of social, ethnic or religious diversity too often goes unchallenged.
    E. Mixing school intakes cannot alone make up for the fact that there are still too many mediocre schools, or that an outstanding school with a middle-class intake may have little experience of teaching more socially diverse groups of children.
    a   AEBDC
     CADEB
     CAEBD
     ADCEB
    Solution:
    Sentence C introduces the topic of 'closing the attainment gap for poor children'. It is substantiated by statement A, making 'CA' a mandatory pair. So, we can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now, sentence E is contrasted by sentence B and sentence D concludes the paragraph.
    Correct Answer : c

    Q.60 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

    A. The EU and the European Aviation Safety Agency are now considering the introduction of a similar rule.
    B. It underscores the fragility of the human factor which is truly the critical element in the rigorous processes required for aviation.
    C. Significantly, last year's mysterious Malaysia Airlines MH 370's disappearance also involved a captain who may have been disturbed.
    D. The Lubitz issue showed that the annual medical examination of pilots done under strict European Union regulations can fail to identify psychological problems such as depression.
    E. Had the EU implemented a 'two-person' cockpit rule, such as in the U.S., which requires two crew members to be present in the cockpit always; this act of mass murder could have been stopped.
    a   CEBDA
     BDCEA
     DCBEA
     EABDC
    Solution:
    The passage talks of crashes caused by pilots who have been mentally disturbed. Both statements C and D talk of two such incidents. The word 'also' in C makes it clear that it will be followed by D; making 'DC' a mandatory pair. This negates option (a). Sentence B talks of the fragility of the human factor involved in aviation. This can only precede and not follow the mandatory pair 'D' because the word 'it' (singular) cannot be used to refer to 'two incidents'. EA is another mandatory pair wherein E talks about the 'two-person' cockpit rule and A refers to this as 'similar rule'. Thus, the correct sequence is BDCEA.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.61 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

    A. Cancer is a dreadful disease.
    B. Yet the suffering of cancer patients and their loved ones can only be increased by the assumption that all cancers, or even most, have an environmental cause and could be evaded by living right.
    C. If there is any painless and ennobling way to die, it is certainly not the indignities, the uncertainty and the devouring pain of many forms of cancer.
    D. The news that most cancers are caused by bad luck - or random failures of the DNA replication mechanism - need not be an occasion for fatalistic despair.
    E. As George Orwell asked, "What weapon has man ever invented that even approaches in cruelty some of the common diseases?"
    a   ABDEC
     ACEBD
     DACEB
     DEBCA
    Solution:
    Sentence D introduces the topic of discussion. 'ACE' is a mandatory sequence because sentence C explains the claim made in sentence A. Sentence E should follow next because it further draws the argument by a quote and the preposition 'as' suggests that it is substantiating the situation with a quote. Sentence B provides a contrast and hence, should follow sentence E.
    Correct Answer : c

    Q.62 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

    A. Equally clearly, nominees should be free to refuse the honour.
    B. In any honours system, whether in France's republic or the British constitutional monarchy, nominations should naturally be made only on the basis of merit, rather than conferred as a mark of political favour or denied as a mark of disapproval.
    C. Britain's honours system is run by trustworthy establishment chaps who make many of their rules and choices in secret, and who far too readily accept the notion that the gong "goes with the job".
    D. On both sides of the Channel, the system inevitably reflects the form of government.
    E. France's honours system is more explicit about its role in bolstering the pride and honour of the nation, as well as more transparent.
    a   BCEDA
     BADCE
     CEDBA
     CEBDA
    Solution:
    There are two mandatory pairs in this sequence. 'BA' is a mandatory pair because of the word 'equally' mentioned in sentence A. Sentence A carries forward the thought mentioned in sentence B. 'CE' is a mandatory pair because they describe two different types of systems. Sentence D introduces the pair 'CE'.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.63 
    The paragraph given below is followed by four options. Select the option that best summarizes the passage.

    Mayor's plan to ban the sale of sugary drinks in extra-large cups was an overreach that was struck down by a state court in March 2013 just before it was to take effect. Now he is talking to health advocates and beverage executives about reviving the cup ban. If the aim is to persuade people to change their soda-drinking habits, prohibiting certain serving sizes is ineffective; a thirsty soda-lover will still find his way to a 32-ounce Slurpee, via one refill of a 16-ounce cup. The mayor would do better to educate and encourage people, especially schoolchildren, to make smarter food choices.
    a   The Mayor is on the right side of an urgent public health battle but he needs to use better weapons.
     People should be able to make wiser food choices themselves.
     Bans are not an effective way to educate people to eat right.
     Instead of reviving the big-cup ban, the mayor should encourage people to make healthier choices.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is negated because the paragraph does not talk of sugary drinks as an urgent public health battle. Option (b) is ruled out because it contradicts the paragraph which states that people should be educated to make smarter food choices. Option (c) is more of a conclusion and is too general. Option (d) is the correct answer because it correctly summarizes the issue of the revival of the big-cup ban and how it is better to encourage people to eat better rather than putting a ban on sugary drinks.
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.64 
    The paragraph given below is followed by four options. Select the option that best summarizes the passage.

    And on that front its power is really immense - in fact, even greater than the market share numbers indicate. Book sales depend crucially on buzz and word of mouth (which is why authors are often sent on grueling book tours); you buy a book because you've heard about it, because other people are reading it, because it's a topic of conversation, because it's made to the best-seller list. And what Amazon possesses is the power to kill the buzz. It's definitely possible, with some extra effort,to buy a book you've heard about even if Amazon doesn't carry it - but if Amazon doesn't carry that book, you're much less likely to hear about it in the first place. So can we trust Amazon not to abuse that power? The Hachette dispute has settled that question: no, we can't. It's not just about the money, although that's important: By putting the squeeze on publishers, Amazon is ultimately hurting authors and readers. But there's also the question of undue influence.
    a   Amazon.com, the giant online retailer, has too much power.
     Amazon has too much power, in case of books, and is abusing it.
     When it comes to publicity, Amazon has market power.
     In the case of Hachette, Amazon has abused its powers.
    Solution:
    The paragraph clearly states that Amazon has the power to kill the buzz made by a book and is definitely abusing that power. So, option (b) is the correct answer. Options (a) and (c) are negated because they are incomplete; they do not talk of the company misusing its power. Furthermore, option (c) talks about publicity in general and makes no reference to books. Option (d) focuses only on a particular example.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.65 
    The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

    Today we have a progressive economy, electrifying lifestyles, exotic vacations, everything at the click of a mouse. But we're still battling an age-old disease: tuberculosis (TB). When I walk with an outreach worker or talk to patients, a million questions come to my mind. Why do we have a disease that is curable but has gone totally berserk? It doesn't matter who you are, TB can still attack you. Of course, people from the lower socio-economic strata are more vulnerable because of various factors like poor sanitation, ventilation and overcrowding.
    a   The world is still plagued by certain diseases despite no lack of cure.
     The people from lower socio-economic strata suffer more from fatal diseases.
     There is more to the treatment for a disease, like TB, than finding its cure.
     Irrespective of the progress made by mankind, certain social evils still exist.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is negated because the passage suggests that it is talking about a certain economy, i.e., a certain country. Option (b) is ruled out because the passage only suggests that people from lower socio-economic strata are more vulnerable. This does not necessarily translate into them suffering more from certain diseases. Option (d) is irrelevant because the passage does not talk of social evils. Option (c) is the correct answer because the passage states that irrespective of the availability of cure, a certain disease is rampant amongst the citizens of a country. This suggests that in order to defeat a disease, one needs to look at other aspects too.
    Correct Answer : c

    Q.66 
    Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   He used his money to finance his art, and the paintings that resulted, most of us would agree,were worth the expenditure.
     From such comments, you might think that van Gogh harbored an epicurean predilection for Bordeaux wines and foie gras.
     After all, painting should be done at society's expense, and the artist shouldn't be overburdened by it.
     It is true he lived on borrowed money, but you cannot accurately call him profligate.
    Solution:
    'da' is a mandatory pair because option (a) tells us why we cannot call Van Gogh profligate. The pair suggests that Van Gogh used to borrow money because he would spend his own money to finance his art. Option (c) contradicts this and is the odd one out. Option (b) should precede option (d).
    Correct Answer : c

    Q.67 
    Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   Human beings visibly wear out, though they last longer than their friends the dogs.
     If you carry your childhood with you, you never become older.
     Childhood is a stage in the process of that continual remanufacture of the Life Stuff by which the human race is perpetuated.
     The Life Force either will not or cannot achieve immortality except in very low organisms: indeed it is by no means ascertained that even the amoeba is immortal.
    Solution:
    'da' is a mandatory pair. Option (d) introduces the concept of life force while option (a) talks of this life force wearing out in human beings and dogs. Option (b) is disconnected to options (d) and (a) as they do not have anything in common. Option (c) should precede option (d) because both talk of the Life Stuff or the Life Force which needs continual remanufacture as it is not immortal.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.68 
    Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   Death is for many of us the gate of hell; but we are inside on the way out, not outside on the way in.
     The fear of death follows from the fear of life.
     Therefore let us give up telling one another idle stories, and rejoice in death as we rejoice in birth; for without death we cannot be born again.
     And the man who does not wish to be born again and born better is fit only to represent the City of London in Parliament, or perhaps the University of Oxford.
    Solution:
    'ac' forms a mandatory pair. In option (a), the author says we are "inside on the way out", which means that it is only after dying that we are reborn and hence we should "rejoice in death" (mentioned in (c)). Option (d) follows 'ac' as it links "rejoicing in birth" to the desire for being born again and born better. Option (b) is the odd one as it talks of the 'fear' of death while other options look at 'death' in a positive light.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.69 
    Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   It would take "at least a week" to search the remote site, he said, and "at least several days" to repatriate the bodies.
     Unverified information from plane-tracking websites appeared to rule out an explosion or a midair stall, both of which would cause a much faster descent, he said.
     Lieutenant Colonel Jean-Marc Menichini said a squad of 30 mountain rescue police would resume attempts to reach the crash site by helicopter at dawn Wednesday, while a further 65 police were seeking access on foot.
     The arduous search for the 150 victims of the worst aviation disaster on French soil in decades was set to resume at dawn Wednesday, as European leaders visit the site of the tragedy to pay their respects.
    Solution:
    The correct order is 'dca'. The first line introduces the situation of a search for the debris of a plane crash. Option (c) carries it forward by giving information about the number of people involved in search party. Option (a) mentions the time required for the search as mentioned by the person introduced in option (c). Option (b) is the odd-one out because it talks about the possible reasons for the crash.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.70 
    Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence (s) or part(s) of sentence (s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

    A. Advertising is riddled with myths and misunderstandings.
    B. It is believed simultaneously to be both immensely powerful and immensely wasteful,
    C. to increase economic prosperity and to be morally questionable.
    D. Neither its historic origins nor its modern operation are well understood.
    a   A and B
     B and D
     C and D
     C and A
    Solution:
    Statement B should be "simultaneously believed" as 'simultaneously' (adverb) modifies the verb, 'believed'. Also, the phrase 'to be both immensely powerful and immensely wasteful' is linked with 'believed' and not with 'simultaneously'. Statement D should have 'is' instead of 'are' because in case of 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the subject (in this case - modern operation) closest to it.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.71 
    Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

    A. But what's most uplifting about the judgment is that it has explicated at us,
    B. with remarkable felicity, the scope of the right available to one to express ourselves
    C. freely, and the limited space given to the state in restraining
    D. this freedom in only the most exceptional of circumstances.
    a   A and B
     A and C
     B and C
     B and D
    Solution:
    The preposition used with the word 'explicate' should be 'to'. Statement B uses the incorrect pronoun; it could be 'us' and 'ourselves' or 'one' and 'oneself'.
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.72 
    Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

    A. Only strict grammarians are aware of that "farther" is for
    B. measured distance while "further" is for metaphoric distance.
    C. So if the line refers to the extra kilometres
    D. in the life of a car, "Go Further" is incorrect.
    a   A and B
     B only
     C and D
     B, C and D
    Solution:
    In statement (a), it should be 'aware that'. We can be aware of "something (a noun)" or aware that "something has happened or is true (a clause - which includes a verb)". The sentence talks of the distance that can be measured, so the adjective 'measurable' should be used.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 73 to 76: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    It's a commonplace that great art comes from great suffering. The recent Oscar-winning movie Whiplash may have shocked audiences unacquainted with the tyranny of an elite musical education, but for those schooled in such rigours, it had a distinctly familiar beat; sometimes uncomfortably so. The scenes of Miles Teller's character Andrew plunging his bruised and bleeding fingers into buckets of ice-cold water while JK Simmons' sadistic teacher excoriated him could have been any young and fiercely determined classical instrumentalist subjecting themselves to the sort of extreme demands we usually associate with professional sports.

    Classical composers have for centuries been dreaming up pieces so physically challenging they have initially been considered beyond the realm of human capability - until someone comes along and exerts such superhuman effort that they raise the bar for everyone else. Back in 1878, Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky wrote a violin concerto in D major. It was apparently declared "unplayable" by Leopold Auer to whom the work was originally dedicated. As the Czar's court violinist, Auer was undoubtedly the hot-shot fiddle player of his day, but even he could not get his nimble fingers around the quicksilver passages of the concerto?s first and third movements.

    It was to be another three years before the violinist Adolf Brodksy finally nailed it, giving what must have been a thrilling premiere in Vienna in December 1881. These days, while it is still considered one of the most technically demanding concertos around, the Tchaikovsky is a standard favourite with performers and audiences alike. No serious professional violinist could afford to leave it out of their repertoire.

    Similar stories abound in the classical canon - from Liszt's gasp-inducing Transcendental Etudes, with their gigantic leaps, to "Rach 3", Rachmaninov's epic third piano concerto "a savage, relentless exposure to everything the keyboard can throw at anyone who dares to take it on," as writer Alex Wade puts it.

    Such technically demanding works can prove a headache for the composers too. In 1939, Samuel Barber accepted a commission from the wealthy American soap baron Samuel Fels to write a violin concerto for his son, Ivo Briselli. Though Briselli was an accomplished virtuoso, he struggled with its lightning-quick third movement and declared the piece unplayable. Fels promptly demanded his money back.

    (Fortunately for Barber, he got to keep his $1,000 when a student at Philadelphia's esteemed Curtis Institute managed to get through it, proving that it could in fact, be done.)

    The thing with these sorts of pieces is that they took a long time to work out," says conductor Nicholas Collon, whose groundbreaking Aurora Orchestra often programmes seemingly 'unplayable' works, to memorable effect. "If I were a violin soloist and first presented with Thomas Ades' Concerto, for example, I might have deemed it unplayable, but of course it was given a very fine premiere by Anthony Marwood in 2005, and now loads of violinists play it. Rach 3 is still as hard as it ever was, but people understand that it's possible, so they tackle it and go for it. It's a bit like climbing Everest - it's been done so many times that we know it's possible and totally achievable." In other words: up your game, folks. Alex Wade, referring to his preferred peak, adds: "Just as K2, despite its death rate of one in three, will always attract the elite in mountaineering circles, so too is Rach 3 the work that every pianist of genuine ability will want to master."
    Q.73 
    Each of the following statements can be inferred from the passage except:
    a   Most musicians, who have received musical education from elite schools, have experienced rigorous training.
     A musician's success depends on his ability to master the most difficult pieces ever composed.
     Nimble fingers are considered as an asset for a musician.
     A music composer does not need to be able to play his own compositions.
    Solution:
    Option (b) is the correct answer because even though the passage suggests that any genuine musician would want to master certain difficult pieces of music; we cannot definitely conclude that a musician's success depends on it. Option (a) can be inferred because the passage states that those who received elite musical education are familiar with its tyranny, i.e., its rigours. Option (c) is also ruled out because the passage focuses on the importance of nimble fingers of a musician throughout the passage. It also suggests that a piece of music is considered difficult on the basis of its "quicksilver passage" or "lightning-quick movements". Option (d) is supported by the passage because it clearly states that a composition needs to be played by a musician for a composer to receive recognition for it.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 73 to 76: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    It's a commonplace that great art comes from great suffering. The recent Oscar-winning movie Whiplash may have shocked audiences unacquainted with the tyranny of an elite musical education, but for those schooled in such rigours, it had a distinctly familiar beat; sometimes uncomfortably so. The scenes of Miles Teller's character Andrew plunging his bruised and bleeding fingers into buckets of ice-cold water while JK Simmons' sadistic teacher excoriated him could have been any young and fiercely determined classical instrumentalist subjecting themselves to the sort of extreme demands we usually associate with professional sports.

    Classical composers have for centuries been dreaming up pieces so physically challenging they have initially been considered beyond the realm of human capability - until someone comes along and exerts such superhuman effort that they raise the bar for everyone else. Back in 1878, Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky wrote a violin concerto in D major. It was apparently declared "unplayable" by Leopold Auer to whom the work was originally dedicated. As the Czar's court violinist, Auer was undoubtedly the hot-shot fiddle player of his day, but even he could not get his nimble fingers around the quicksilver passages of the concerto?s first and third movements.

    It was to be another three years before the violinist Adolf Brodksy finally nailed it, giving what must have been a thrilling premiere in Vienna in December 1881. These days, while it is still considered one of the most technically demanding concertos around, the Tchaikovsky is a standard favourite with performers and audiences alike. No serious professional violinist could afford to leave it out of their repertoire.

    Similar stories abound in the classical canon - from Liszt's gasp-inducing Transcendental Etudes, with their gigantic leaps, to "Rach 3", Rachmaninov's epic third piano concerto "a savage, relentless exposure to everything the keyboard can throw at anyone who dares to take it on," as writer Alex Wade puts it.

    Such technically demanding works can prove a headache for the composers too. In 1939, Samuel Barber accepted a commission from the wealthy American soap baron Samuel Fels to write a violin concerto for his son, Ivo Briselli. Though Briselli was an accomplished virtuoso, he struggled with its lightning-quick third movement and declared the piece unplayable. Fels promptly demanded his money back.

    (Fortunately for Barber, he got to keep his $1,000 when a student at Philadelphia's esteemed Curtis Institute managed to get through it, proving that it could in fact, be done.)

    The thing with these sorts of pieces is that they took a long time to work out," says conductor Nicholas Collon, whose groundbreaking Aurora Orchestra often programmes seemingly 'unplayable' works, to memorable effect. "If I were a violin soloist and first presented with Thomas Ades' Concerto, for example, I might have deemed it unplayable, but of course it was given a very fine premiere by Anthony Marwood in 2005, and now loads of violinists play it. Rach 3 is still as hard as it ever was, but people understand that it's possible, so they tackle it and go for it. It's a bit like climbing Everest - it's been done so many times that we know it's possible and totally achievable." In other words: up your game, folks. Alex Wade, referring to his preferred peak, adds: "Just as K2, despite its death rate of one in three, will always attract the elite in mountaineering circles, so too is Rach 3 the work that every pianist of genuine ability will want to master."
    Q.74 
    Why does the author refer to a musician's achievement as a superhuman effort?
    a   It results in transition of a piece of music from beyond the realm of human capability to within the realm of human capability.
     The performance of a piece of music seems more like a savage exploration of the capabilities of an instrument rather than a musical extravaganza.
     The achievement is the embodiment of what every musician of genuine ability would want to master and yet few are successful at it.
     The efforts required for the achievement make other musicians accept the possibility of being able to master a difficult piece of music.
    Solution:
    The passage clearly states that a difficult piece of music is considered 'unplayable' till a musician manages to plays it. The difficulty of the piece makes the efforts, put in by the musician to play it, seem superhuman. This results in the transition of the piece from being 'unplayable' to being 'achievable'. Option (b) is irrelevant as the efforts are not described in terms of how the final performance looks. The passage states that every musician of genuine ability would want to master a difficult piece of music which is completely unrelated to the superhuman effort mentioned in the passage. Hence, option (c) is incorrect. Option (d) is negated because the passage does not talk of the efforts put in by musicians to master certain difficult pieces of music.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 73 to 76: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    It's a commonplace that great art comes from great suffering. The recent Oscar-winning movie Whiplash may have shocked audiences unacquainted with the tyranny of an elite musical education, but for those schooled in such rigours, it had a distinctly familiar beat; sometimes uncomfortably so. The scenes of Miles Teller's character Andrew plunging his bruised and bleeding fingers into buckets of ice-cold water while JK Simmons' sadistic teacher excoriated him could have been any young and fiercely determined classical instrumentalist subjecting themselves to the sort of extreme demands we usually associate with professional sports.

    Classical composers have for centuries been dreaming up pieces so physically challenging they have initially been considered beyond the realm of human capability - until someone comes along and exerts such superhuman effort that they raise the bar for everyone else. Back in 1878, Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky wrote a violin concerto in D major. It was apparently declared "unplayable" by Leopold Auer to whom the work was originally dedicated. As the Czar's court violinist, Auer was undoubtedly the hot-shot fiddle player of his day, but even he could not get his nimble fingers around the quicksilver passages of the concerto?s first and third movements.

    It was to be another three years before the violinist Adolf Brodksy finally nailed it, giving what must have been a thrilling premiere in Vienna in December 1881. These days, while it is still considered one of the most technically demanding concertos around, the Tchaikovsky is a standard favourite with performers and audiences alike. No serious professional violinist could afford to leave it out of their repertoire.

    Similar stories abound in the classical canon - from Liszt's gasp-inducing Transcendental Etudes, with their gigantic leaps, to "Rach 3", Rachmaninov's epic third piano concerto "a savage, relentless exposure to everything the keyboard can throw at anyone who dares to take it on," as writer Alex Wade puts it.

    Such technically demanding works can prove a headache for the composers too. In 1939, Samuel Barber accepted a commission from the wealthy American soap baron Samuel Fels to write a violin concerto for his son, Ivo Briselli. Though Briselli was an accomplished virtuoso, he struggled with its lightning-quick third movement and declared the piece unplayable. Fels promptly demanded his money back.

    (Fortunately for Barber, he got to keep his $1,000 when a student at Philadelphia's esteemed Curtis Institute managed to get through it, proving that it could in fact, be done.)

    The thing with these sorts of pieces is that they took a long time to work out," says conductor Nicholas Collon, whose groundbreaking Aurora Orchestra often programmes seemingly 'unplayable' works, to memorable effect. "If I were a violin soloist and first presented with Thomas Ades' Concerto, for example, I might have deemed it unplayable, but of course it was given a very fine premiere by Anthony Marwood in 2005, and now loads of violinists play it. Rach 3 is still as hard as it ever was, but people understand that it's possible, so they tackle it and go for it. It's a bit like climbing Everest - it's been done so many times that we know it's possible and totally achievable." In other words: up your game, folks. Alex Wade, referring to his preferred peak, adds: "Just as K2, despite its death rate of one in three, will always attract the elite in mountaineering circles, so too is Rach 3 the work that every pianist of genuine ability will want to master."
    Q.75 
    Which of the following describes a paradox mentioned in the passage?
    a   Even though it is common knowledge that great art comes with great suffering, people associate rigorous efforts only with sports.
     A composer's ability is judged on how difficult it is to play his composition and yet, his composition receives recognition only when a musician is able to play it.
     People are aware that great art comes with great suffering but they still do not view musical education as a demanding exercise.
     A composer is paid for making a difficult piece of music but is not paid if the musician, for whom it is composed, is not able to play it
    Solution:
    Options (a) and (c) deal with the idea mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage. The passage does not talk of a paradox in this case as it only states that the rigorous efforts involved in musical education is usually associated with professional sports. Option (b) talks of a paradox illustrated through Samuel Barber's example. A composer is expected to compose a technically demanding work but this work is appreciated or recognized only when a musician is able to play it. Option (d) is incorrect as the example states that even though Briselli was not able to play it, the composer was paid.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 73 to 76: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    It's a commonplace that great art comes from great suffering. The recent Oscar-winning movie Whiplash may have shocked audiences unacquainted with the tyranny of an elite musical education, but for those schooled in such rigours, it had a distinctly familiar beat; sometimes uncomfortably so. The scenes of Miles Teller's character Andrew plunging his bruised and bleeding fingers into buckets of ice-cold water while JK Simmons' sadistic teacher excoriated him could have been any young and fiercely determined classical instrumentalist subjecting themselves to the sort of extreme demands we usually associate with professional sports.

    Classical composers have for centuries been dreaming up pieces so physically challenging they have initially been considered beyond the realm of human capability - until someone comes along and exerts such superhuman effort that they raise the bar for everyone else. Back in 1878, Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky wrote a violin concerto in D major. It was apparently declared "unplayable" by Leopold Auer to whom the work was originally dedicated. As the Czar's court violinist, Auer was undoubtedly the hot-shot fiddle player of his day, but even he could not get his nimble fingers around the quicksilver passages of the concerto?s first and third movements.

    It was to be another three years before the violinist Adolf Brodksy finally nailed it, giving what must have been a thrilling premiere in Vienna in December 1881. These days, while it is still considered one of the most technically demanding concertos around, the Tchaikovsky is a standard favourite with performers and audiences alike. No serious professional violinist could afford to leave it out of their repertoire.

    Similar stories abound in the classical canon - from Liszt's gasp-inducing Transcendental Etudes, with their gigantic leaps, to "Rach 3", Rachmaninov's epic third piano concerto "a savage, relentless exposure to everything the keyboard can throw at anyone who dares to take it on," as writer Alex Wade puts it.

    Such technically demanding works can prove a headache for the composers too. In 1939, Samuel Barber accepted a commission from the wealthy American soap baron Samuel Fels to write a violin concerto for his son, Ivo Briselli. Though Briselli was an accomplished virtuoso, he struggled with its lightning-quick third movement and declared the piece unplayable. Fels promptly demanded his money back.

    (Fortunately for Barber, he got to keep his $1,000 when a student at Philadelphia's esteemed Curtis Institute managed to get through it, proving that it could in fact, be done.)

    The thing with these sorts of pieces is that they took a long time to work out," says conductor Nicholas Collon, whose groundbreaking Aurora Orchestra often programmes seemingly 'unplayable' works, to memorable effect. "If I were a violin soloist and first presented with Thomas Ades' Concerto, for example, I might have deemed it unplayable, but of course it was given a very fine premiere by Anthony Marwood in 2005, and now loads of violinists play it. Rach 3 is still as hard as it ever was, but people understand that it's possible, so they tackle it and go for it. It's a bit like climbing Everest - it's been done so many times that we know it's possible and totally achievable." In other words: up your game, folks. Alex Wade, referring to his preferred peak, adds: "Just as K2, despite its death rate of one in three, will always attract the elite in mountaineering circles, so too is Rach 3 the work that every pianist of genuine ability will want to master."
    Q.76 
    According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred about a musician?
    a   The conviction that a piece of music can be played is essential for a musician to play it.
     Every classical musician has personally or vicariously experienced the tyranny associated with musical education.
     Certain difficult pieces of music are considered a must for a musician's repertoire as it allows them to display their skills.
     A classical musician always tries to master those pieces of music which are the epitome of classical music.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is negated because we cannot conclude that a musician will not able to play a certain piece of music without having the conviction that he/she can play it. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage talks of tyranny in association with elite musical education and not just any musical education. Option (d) is negated because the passage does not talk of any classical musician's repertoire in general but only of a serious professional violinist's repertoire. Option (c) is the correct answer because the passage clearly states that certain technically demanding concertos cannot be left out of a serious professional musician's repertoire and that every "pianist of genuine ability" would want to master certain pieces which are considered as the peaks of music. The only reason why a musician would definitely include a technically demanding concerto in one's performance is to display one's skills.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 77 to 80: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Animal activism in India is inseparable from a larger affective history of liberalism, a history that, in turn, is deeply entwined with the history and politics of empire. If we were to simply replace horse or animal in Rogers' recollections with the phrase "the female child" or "the Indian woman," her memoir would read no differently than Katherine Mayo's 1927 anti-India polemic, Mother India-a book that, in its stark portrayal of everyday acts of astonishing violence against women and girls, served as a powerful tool of empire, arguing for the need to stay fast in India to protect its most vulnerable from barbarity and neglect. And indeed, animal welfare in contemporary India-like pro-women reform in colonial India-is largely driven by foreigners. The biggest animal shelters and NGOs (except for Maneka Gandhi's) are founded by foreigners who came to India on holiday or for work and found themselves, like Rogers, compelled by the sight of suffering, to stay there or at least to try and transform the place from afar.

    Two British women helped catalyze the first High Court judgment in India that prohibited the killing of stray dogs. They had taken it upon themselves to sterilize dogs, seeing that the consequence of the overpopulation of these dogs on Goan beaches was to be killed by shooters who would exchange the tail of a defeated dog at the municipal office for a sum of rupees. When the women found out that the city had committed a mass culling of dogs they had already sterilized (and who would thus not be guilty of begetting more), they set in motion a series of events that would lead to the founding of People for Animals, Goa, and the building of a landmark court case.

    And then there is another Briton, PETA's (People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals) Ingrid Newkirk, a renegade and murder fantasy of carnivores and vivisectionists everywhere. As an adult she walked the trail of horror that cattle are made to walk, roughly nine-hundred miles from Gujarat-one of the highest dairyproducing states, but one where cow protectionists have secured the illegality of slaughter-to West Bengal, one of the only two states in India in which cow slaughter is legal. (The other is Kerala. Both are Communist Party strongholds.) Newkirk's journey was the basis for a film on India's leather industry but perhaps it is more important as a reason that Newkirk will never quit India. In 2000 she set up a PETA office in Bombay which is headed by a thirty-eight-year-old American-born Indian woman. Numerically, the passionate involvement of such foreigners is a boon for animal welfare; culturally and socially, however, it makes for a liability. Critics of animal rights have every reason and many a chance to paint the movement as a product of foreign meddling and elite interests, and as ultimately working against the economic wellbeing of the nation.
    Q.77 
    Which of the following is true about the foreigners who are involved in animal activism in India?
    a   In colonial India, animal activism was primarily led by the foreigners.
     Some foreigners have moved the Indian judiciary against the cruelty inflicted on animals in India.
     Their work is open to criticism on a social level as it could be considered a part of elite interests.
     The foreigners are more sensitive, compared to Indians, towards the problems faced by the most vulnerable animals in India.
    Solution:
    Option (c) is the correct answer because the last two lines of the passage make it clear that the involvement of foreigners in animal welfare is considered a liability. Their work is open to criticism on the basis of the possibility that their interests could be a part of elite interests. Option (a) is incorrect because the passage talks of animal activism in contemporary India and not colonial India. Option (b) is negated because the passage does not talk of any foreigners moving the judiciary but only of helping to obtain a prohibition of the killing of stray dogs. Option (d) is also negated because even though the passage states that foreigners are primarily involved in animal activism; we cannot definitely infer that they are more sensitive towards the animals, as compared to Indians.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 77 to 80: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Animal activism in India is inseparable from a larger affective history of liberalism, a history that, in turn, is deeply entwined with the history and politics of empire. If we were to simply replace horse or animal in Rogers' recollections with the phrase "the female child" or "the Indian woman," her memoir would read no differently than Katherine Mayo's 1927 anti-India polemic, Mother India-a book that, in its stark portrayal of everyday acts of astonishing violence against women and girls, served as a powerful tool of empire, arguing for the need to stay fast in India to protect its most vulnerable from barbarity and neglect. And indeed, animal welfare in contemporary India-like pro-women reform in colonial India-is largely driven by foreigners. The biggest animal shelters and NGOs (except for Maneka Gandhi's) are founded by foreigners who came to India on holiday or for work and found themselves, like Rogers, compelled by the sight of suffering, to stay there or at least to try and transform the place from afar.

    Two British women helped catalyze the first High Court judgment in India that prohibited the killing of stray dogs. They had taken it upon themselves to sterilize dogs, seeing that the consequence of the overpopulation of these dogs on Goan beaches was to be killed by shooters who would exchange the tail of a defeated dog at the municipal office for a sum of rupees. When the women found out that the city had committed a mass culling of dogs they had already sterilized (and who would thus not be guilty of begetting more), they set in motion a series of events that would lead to the founding of People for Animals, Goa, and the building of a landmark court case.

    And then there is another Briton, PETA's (People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals) Ingrid Newkirk, a renegade and murder fantasy of carnivores and vivisectionists everywhere. As an adult she walked the trail of horror that cattle are made to walk, roughly nine-hundred miles from Gujarat-one of the highest dairyproducing states, but one where cow protectionists have secured the illegality of slaughter-to West Bengal, one of the only two states in India in which cow slaughter is legal. (The other is Kerala. Both are Communist Party strongholds.) Newkirk's journey was the basis for a film on India's leather industry but perhaps it is more important as a reason that Newkirk will never quit India. In 2000 she set up a PETA office in Bombay which is headed by a thirty-eight-year-old American-born Indian woman. Numerically, the passionate involvement of such foreigners is a boon for animal welfare; culturally and socially, however, it makes for a liability. Critics of animal rights have every reason and many a chance to paint the movement as a product of foreign meddling and elite interests, and as ultimately working against the economic wellbeing of the nation.
    Q.78 
    Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about Newkirk?
    a   She was a carnivore in the beginning but only till she was affected by the plight of cows.
     Her journey of the "trail of horror" inspired a film based on the slaughter of cattle.
     Her journey to West Bengal, where cow slaughter is legal, is the reason behind her starting PETA in India.
     She is completely opposed to animal testing as it is against the ethical treatment that animals deserve.
    Solution:
    Option (b) is the correct answer because the passage clearly states that Newkirk's journey is the basis of the film and her journey is about the cattle that is taken all the way to West Bengal, from Gujarat, to be slaughtered. Option (a) is negated because even though the passage calls her a renegade, we cannot definitely conclude that it is regarding her eating habits. Option (c) is incorrect because the passage only suggests that her journey inspired her to work for animals in India. We cannot definitely conclude from the passage that her journey was the reason for her starting PETA in India. Option (d) is also incorrect because the passage states that she is against vivisectionists. Animal testing is too broad a term to be used in this context.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 77 to 80: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Animal activism in India is inseparable from a larger affective history of liberalism, a history that, in turn, is deeply entwined with the history and politics of empire. If we were to simply replace horse or animal in Rogers' recollections with the phrase "the female child" or "the Indian woman," her memoir would read no differently than Katherine Mayo's 1927 anti-India polemic, Mother India-a book that, in its stark portrayal of everyday acts of astonishing violence against women and girls, served as a powerful tool of empire, arguing for the need to stay fast in India to protect its most vulnerable from barbarity and neglect. And indeed, animal welfare in contemporary India-like pro-women reform in colonial India-is largely driven by foreigners. The biggest animal shelters and NGOs (except for Maneka Gandhi's) are founded by foreigners who came to India on holiday or for work and found themselves, like Rogers, compelled by the sight of suffering, to stay there or at least to try and transform the place from afar.

    Two British women helped catalyze the first High Court judgment in India that prohibited the killing of stray dogs. They had taken it upon themselves to sterilize dogs, seeing that the consequence of the overpopulation of these dogs on Goan beaches was to be killed by shooters who would exchange the tail of a defeated dog at the municipal office for a sum of rupees. When the women found out that the city had committed a mass culling of dogs they had already sterilized (and who would thus not be guilty of begetting more), they set in motion a series of events that would lead to the founding of People for Animals, Goa, and the building of a landmark court case.

    And then there is another Briton, PETA's (People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals) Ingrid Newkirk, a renegade and murder fantasy of carnivores and vivisectionists everywhere. As an adult she walked the trail of horror that cattle are made to walk, roughly nine-hundred miles from Gujarat-one of the highest dairyproducing states, but one where cow protectionists have secured the illegality of slaughter-to West Bengal, one of the only two states in India in which cow slaughter is legal. (The other is Kerala. Both are Communist Party strongholds.) Newkirk's journey was the basis for a film on India's leather industry but perhaps it is more important as a reason that Newkirk will never quit India. In 2000 she set up a PETA office in Bombay which is headed by a thirty-eight-year-old American-born Indian woman. Numerically, the passionate involvement of such foreigners is a boon for animal welfare; culturally and socially, however, it makes for a liability. Critics of animal rights have every reason and many a chance to paint the movement as a product of foreign meddling and elite interests, and as ultimately working against the economic wellbeing of the nation.
    Q.79 
    Which of the following is true about the incident mentioned related to the prohibition of the killing of stray dogs?
    a   The financial incentive given by the municipal corporation of Goa has made the people insensitive to the killing of stray dogs.
     The prohibition of the killing of stray dogs was announced by the High Court of Goa.
     Sterilization of dogs was not considered as an alternative for controlling the overpopulation of dogs by the Municipal Corporation of Goa.
     The Briton women, related to the incident, were responsible for setting up the 'People for Animals' in Goa.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is negated because it is possible that the people living there were already insensitive to the plight of stray dogs. Option (b) is ruled out because even though the issue was related to Goa, we cannot definitely conclude either that the prohibition was only related to Goa or that the prohibition was announced by the High Court of Goa. Option (d) is also negated because the passage only suggests that they initiated certain actions which finally led to setting up of the organization. It is possible that they were not directly responsible for setting it up. Option (c) is the correct answer because at the time of the incident, the municipal corporation of Goa was still paying money for the culling of dogs and hence, we can definitely infer that they had not started considering sterilization of dogs as an effective alternative.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 77 to 80: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Animal activism in India is inseparable from a larger affective history of liberalism, a history that, in turn, is deeply entwined with the history and politics of empire. If we were to simply replace horse or animal in Rogers' recollections with the phrase "the female child" or "the Indian woman," her memoir would read no differently than Katherine Mayo's 1927 anti-India polemic, Mother India-a book that, in its stark portrayal of everyday acts of astonishing violence against women and girls, served as a powerful tool of empire, arguing for the need to stay fast in India to protect its most vulnerable from barbarity and neglect. And indeed, animal welfare in contemporary India-like pro-women reform in colonial India-is largely driven by foreigners. The biggest animal shelters and NGOs (except for Maneka Gandhi's) are founded by foreigners who came to India on holiday or for work and found themselves, like Rogers, compelled by the sight of suffering, to stay there or at least to try and transform the place from afar.

    Two British women helped catalyze the first High Court judgment in India that prohibited the killing of stray dogs. They had taken it upon themselves to sterilize dogs, seeing that the consequence of the overpopulation of these dogs on Goan beaches was to be killed by shooters who would exchange the tail of a defeated dog at the municipal office for a sum of rupees. When the women found out that the city had committed a mass culling of dogs they had already sterilized (and who would thus not be guilty of begetting more), they set in motion a series of events that would lead to the founding of People for Animals, Goa, and the building of a landmark court case.

    And then there is another Briton, PETA's (People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals) Ingrid Newkirk, a renegade and murder fantasy of carnivores and vivisectionists everywhere. As an adult she walked the trail of horror that cattle are made to walk, roughly nine-hundred miles from Gujarat-one of the highest dairyproducing states, but one where cow protectionists have secured the illegality of slaughter-to West Bengal, one of the only two states in India in which cow slaughter is legal. (The other is Kerala. Both are Communist Party strongholds.) Newkirk's journey was the basis for a film on India's leather industry but perhaps it is more important as a reason that Newkirk will never quit India. In 2000 she set up a PETA office in Bombay which is headed by a thirty-eight-year-old American-born Indian woman. Numerically, the passionate involvement of such foreigners is a boon for animal welfare; culturally and socially, however, it makes for a liability. Critics of animal rights have every reason and many a chance to paint the movement as a product of foreign meddling and elite interests, and as ultimately working against the economic wellbeing of the nation.
    Q.80 
    Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
    a   Animal activism is criticized by the Communists.
     The title of the book, Mother India, is a misnomer.
     The prohibition of slaughter of animals is considered by some to be a hindrance to the economic well-being of a nation.
     The Communist Party is not against cow slaughter.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is the correct answer because even though we know that some people criticize animal rights on the basis of foreign meddling and elite interests, we cannot term them as communists. Option (b) is inferred from the fact that even though the title suggests a sacred position for women, it actually portrays the pitiful plight of Indian women. Option (c) is inferred from the last line of the passage as critics believe in it. Option (d) can be inferred from the fact that the two Indian states, where cow slaughter is not prohibited, are Communist Party strongholds.
    Correct Answer : a

    Q.81 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    Reality shows send a bad message and help to create a cult of instant celebrity. They are typically built about shameless self-promotion, based on humiliating others and harming relationships for the entertainment of each other and the viewers at home. These programmes suggest that anyone can become famous just by getting on TV and "being themselves", without working hard or having any particular talent. Kids who watch these shows will get the idea that they don't need to study hard in school, or train hard for a regular job. As John Humphrys points out, 'we tell kids what matters is being a celebrity and we wonder why some behave the way they do'. As American lawyer Lisa Bloom fears, 'addiction to celebrity culture' is creating a generation of dumbed-down women. Reality shows encourage such addictions and promote the generally misguided belief that they should aspire to be the reality stars they watch on their televisions.

    Which of the following statements most weakens the given argument?
    a   Reality shows show kids only what they want to see; that is what free market is all about.
     Reality shows have not ruined television as a whole; they have merely added another option for young viewers.
     Reality TV educates young viewers by displaying disastrous consequences of someone's behavior, thus deterring viewers from doing similar silly actions.
     Reality shows are effectively anthropological experiments, allowing youngsters to study people and societies from the comfort of their living rooms.
    Solution:
    The argument uses the premise that reality TV is corrupting young viewers. Option (c) goes against this premise and, hence, weakens the argument. Option (a) assumes that kids can decide if what they want to see is good for them. Option (b) neglects the fact that reality TV can harm despite it being only 'another option'. Option (d) assumes that youngsters do not get affected by what they see; even if they see only an experiment.
    Correct Answer : c

    Q.82 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    Cosmetic surgery involves both surgical and medical techniques and it is specifically concerned with maintaining normal appearance, restoring it, or enhancing it beyond the average level toward some aesthetic ideal. The compulsion to change one's body is often a symptom of a deeper mental instability. It should be treated as a problem, not encouraged with surgery. Research indicating that breast augmentation patients are four times more likely to commit suicide compared to other plastic surgery patients raises questions about the mental health of women who choose implants. It's only a plaster patched over a much deeper problem. There are also studies that show negative psychological effects on patients after their surgery has been completed. Hence, cosmetic surgery should be banned.

    What affect does the following statement have on the given argument?
    "Cosmetic surgery is unfair, for only those who can afford it have access to it."
    a   It supports the argument.
     It does not affect the given argument.
     It underpins the premise given in the argument.
     It extends the argument.
    Solution:
    The argument is about why cosmetic surgery is bad. The given statement adds another dimension to this argument and hence extends it. This negates option (b) and makes option (d) the correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect because even though the given statement is related to cosmetic surgery, it does not suggest that plastic surgery should be banned. For this very reason, option (c) can also be negated because the premise of the argument, i.e. "plastic surgery is just a plaster patched over a much deeper problem", is not substantiated by the view point given in the statement.
    Correct Answer : d

    Q.83 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    You have to be looking in the right place and have some idea of how to distinguish those precious fossils from all the rock surrounding it. But that's not all. How the sun hits stone, where your eyes fall along the outcrop, and even where you stop to take a break can make all the difference between finding something amazing and passing it by. And that's just in the field.

    Which of the following statements can be concluded from the passage?
    a   Finding fossils depends on how lucky you are and where you are.
     Finding fossils takes a combination of skill and luck.
     Discovery of fossils in a field is more dependent on your luck than your skill.
     Searching for fossils in an open area is based more on luck when compared to searching for them in closed locations.
    Solution:
    Options (a) and (c) are negated because the passage does not suggest that luck is more important than the knowledge of identifying fossils. Option (d) is ruled out because the passage does not talk of searching for fossils in closed locations. Option (b) is the correct answer because the passage clearly states that one needs to have the know-how to identify fossils along with the luck to notice them when you cross them.
    Correct Answer : b

    Q.84 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    I loved Kasatka, even though she was the most dangerous water work whale in the corporation. I swam with her for many years, in day shows, in night shows. I had been injured with her, and felt her treat me with care during my injuries. I trusted her on a very high level. The greatest compliment I ever received was when a young trainer said, "That's what I want. One day I want to have a relationship with a killer whale as strong as John's with Kasatka." But I never lost sight of the fact that one day she could betray me, because at the end of the day she is a killer whale.

    Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
    a   The author was a trainer who used to train killer whales to do water shows.
     The author knew that killer whales never lose their natural instinct.
     The author trusted killer whales to be simultaneously capable of taking care of human beings and hurting them.
     The author was an inspiration to many due to the special bond he shared with the killer whales.
    Solution:
    The passage clearly states that the author did shows with killer whales and that he was inspiration for a young trainer for the kind of relationship he had with one of the killer whales. We cannot conclude from this that the author was a trainer; it is possible that he was a co-performer in the shows. Option (b) also cannot be inferred because the author talks only of a possibility of a betrayal. So, we cannot definitely say that the killer whales do not lose their natural instinct in any circumstance. Option (d) is negated because the passage talks only about a single trainer being inspired by the author. Option (c) can be inferred from the passage because the author has clearly mentioned that the whale took care of him when he was injured, yet he accepts the fact that she could betray his trust.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A group of friends went to a discotheque. In the group, Ammy, Swapi, Yeshu, Rajju, Siddhu, Hemlu, and Anshu were male members and Apara, Nishthu, Sisha, Teenu and Jyoti were female members. The entry fee for a couple, which always comprises a male and a female, was Rs. 500. The entry of a single female was free, whereas the entry fee for a single male was Rs. 400. The group had two couples. People with boyfriends/ girlfriends make entry together as a couple, whereas those not having a boyfriend or a girlfriend can form a couple with any available person. It is also known that:
    I. Boyfriends of Apara and Jyoti were members of the group.
    II. Sisha formed a couple with either Ammy or Anshu.
    III. No girl made a single entry.
    IV. Teenu formed a couple with either Yeshu or Siddhu.
    V. Rajju's girlfriend was a member of the group. 
    VI. Nishthu formed a couple with either Rajju or Ammy.
    Q.85 
    Nishthu made a couple entry with
    a   Ammy
     Rajju
     Swapi
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Since Rajju has a girlfriend, he would make entry with her as a couple. So Nishthu must have made entry with Ammy.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A group of friends went to a discotheque. In the group, Ammy, Swapi, Yeshu, Rajju, Siddhu, Hemlu, and Anshu were male members and Apara, Nishthu, Sisha, Teenu and Jyoti were female members. The entry fee for a couple, which always comprises a male and a female, was Rs. 500. The entry of a single female was free, whereas the entry fee for a single male was Rs. 400. The group had two couples. People with boyfriends/ girlfriends make entry together as a couple, whereas those not having a boyfriend or a girlfriend can form a couple with any available person. It is also known that:
    I. Boyfriends of Apara and Jyoti were members of the group.
    II. Sisha formed a couple with either Ammy or Anshu.
    III. No girl made a single entry.
    IV. Teenu formed a couple with either Yeshu or Siddhu.
    V. Rajju's girlfriend was a member of the group. 
    VI. Nishthu formed a couple with either Rajju or Ammy.
    Q.86 
    If Swapi had a girlfriend, who made single entry?
    a   Two out of the four Yeshu, Siddhu, Hemlu, Anshu
     Siddhu and Hemlu
     Definitely Hemlu and either Siddhu or Anshu
     Definitely Hemlu and either Yeshu or Siddhu
    Solution:
    Hemlu does not go with any girl. So he and either Yeshu or Siddhu must have made a single entry.
    Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A group of friends went to a discotheque. In the group, Ammy, Swapi, Yeshu, Rajju, Siddhu, Hemlu, and Anshu were male members and Apara, Nishthu, Sisha, Teenu and Jyoti were female members. The entry fee for a couple, which always comprises a male and a female, was Rs. 500. The entry of a single female was free, whereas the entry fee for a single male was Rs. 400. The group had two couples. People with boyfriends/ girlfriends make entry together as a couple, whereas those not having a boyfriend or a girlfriend can form a couple with any available person. It is also known that:
    I. Boyfriends of Apara and Jyoti were members of the group.
    II. Sisha formed a couple with either Ammy or Anshu.
    III. No girl made a single entry.
    IV. Teenu formed a couple with either Yeshu or Siddhu.
    V. Rajju's girlfriend was a member of the group. 
    VI. Nishthu formed a couple with either Rajju or Ammy.
    Q.87 
    Sisha made a couple entry with
    a   Ammy or Anshu
     Ammy
     Anshu
     Rajju
    Solution:
    As Ammy has made entry with Nishthu, Sisha must have made entry with Anshu.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A group of friends went to a discotheque. In the group, Ammy, Swapi, Yeshu, Rajju, Siddhu, Hemlu, and Anshu were male members and Apara, Nishthu, Sisha, Teenu and Jyoti were female members. The entry fee for a couple, which always comprises a male and a female, was Rs. 500. The entry of a single female was free, whereas the entry fee for a single male was Rs. 400. The group had two couples. People with boyfriends/ girlfriends make entry together as a couple, whereas those not having a boyfriend or a girlfriend can form a couple with any available person. It is also known that:
    I. Boyfriends of Apara and Jyoti were members of the group.
    II. Sisha formed a couple with either Ammy or Anshu.
    III. No girl made a single entry.
    IV. Teenu formed a couple with either Yeshu or Siddhu.
    V. Rajju's girlfriend was a member of the group. 
    VI. Nishthu formed a couple with either Rajju or Ammy.
    Q.88 
    If all the given restrictions are relaxed and the group wanted to minimize overall expenditure, then how many couples, single male and single girls should make entry respectively?
    a   0, 7, 5
     5, 2, 0
     2, 5, 3
     None of these
    Solution:
    Option (a): Amount to be paid Rs. 2800
    Option (b): Amount to be paid Rs. 3300
    Option (c): Amount to be paid Rs. 3000
    Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production department of a multinational company houses seven typists, all of them are working on a project. The given diagrams depict their performance over a four days period. In each diagram, the four corner figures show the percentage of total lines typed on that day by the top four typists of the day whereas the middle circle denotes the total number of lines typed by the remaining three typists put together on that day. No two typists typed the same number of lines on any of the given four days. A typist may not type even a single line on a given day. HR also computed two parameters for each typist: Performance Variance (PV), is the positive difference between the sum of the maximum and minimum number of lines typed by a typist over the period of 4 days and the sum of the lines typed on the remaining two days; Sigma, is the mean (average) of the two middle quantities when a typist's number of lines, typed across 4 days, is arranged in non-decreasing order.
    Q.89 
    Given that the Sigma for all typists is an integer, for how many of them is it not possible to calculate the exact value of it?
    a   0
     2
     4
     More than 4
    Solution:

    Only in case of Sanjay, there lies only one integer between the highest and lowest possible values of Sigma, and thus only for him the a unique value of Sigma can be calculated. Hence, there are six typist for whom value of Sigma cannot be calculated.
    Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production department of a multinational company houses seven typists, all of them are working on a project. The given diagrams depict their performance over a four days period. In each diagram, the four corner figures show the percentage of total lines typed on that day by the top four typists of the day whereas the middle circle denotes the total number of lines typed by the remaining three typists put together on that day. No two typists typed the same number of lines on any of the given four days. A typist may not type even a single line on a given day. HR also computed two parameters for each typist: Performance Variance (PV), is the positive difference between the sum of the maximum and minimum number of lines typed by a typist over the period of 4 days and the sum of the lines typed on the remaining two days; Sigma, is the mean (average) of the two middle quantities when a typist's number of lines, typed across 4 days, is arranged in non-decreasing order.
    Q.90 
    For which of the given typists, can the value of PV be 0?
    a   Salim
     Sanjay
     Salim and Sanjay
     None of them
    Solution:
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production department of a multinational company houses seven typists, all of them are working on a project. The given diagrams depict their performance over a four days period. In each diagram, the four corner figures show the percentage of total lines typed on that day by the top four typists of the day whereas the middle circle denotes the total number of lines typed by the remaining three typists put together on that day. No two typists typed the same number of lines on any of the given four days. A typist may not type even a single line on a given day. HR also computed two parameters for each typist: Performance Variance (PV), is the positive difference between the sum of the maximum and minimum number of lines typed by a typist over the period of 4 days and the sum of the lines typed on the remaining two days; Sigma, is the mean (average) of the two middle quantities when a typist's number of lines, typed across 4 days, is arranged in non-decreasing order.
    Q.91 
    During the given period, how many typists did definitely type more number of pages than what Kapil did?
    a   1
     2
     3
     More than 3
    Solution:

    Maximum lines that Kapil can type was (55 + 56 + 51 + 44 = 206). From the table, it can be seen that Sanjay and Dipak definitely typed more number of pages than what Kapil did.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Production department of a multinational company houses seven typists, all of them are working on a project. The given diagrams depict their performance over a four days period. In each diagram, the four corner figures show the percentage of total lines typed on that day by the top four typists of the day whereas the middle circle denotes the total number of lines typed by the remaining three typists put together on that day. No two typists typed the same number of lines on any of the given four days. A typist may not type even a single line on a given day. HR also computed two parameters for each typist: Performance Variance (PV), is the positive difference between the sum of the maximum and minimum number of lines typed by a typist over the period of 4 days and the sum of the lines typed on the remaining two days; Sigma, is the mean (average) of the two middle quantities when a typist's number of lines, typed across 4 days, is arranged in non-decreasing order.
    Q.92 
    For which typist was the difference between minimum and maximum possible Sigma the least?
    a   Sanjay
     Salim
     Gaurav
     Kandarp
    Solution:

    From the table, it can be seen that the difference for Sanjay is the least, which is 0.5.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six ladies are travelling together in a train. They are sitting in one block with two rows facing each other, with three ladies in each row. Each of them has written a book in the subject of her interest, and everyone is reading a book written by one of the other ladies in the group. No two ladies are reading a book written by the same lady. It is also known that:
    I. Aishwarya, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is reading the book on mathematics. She does not have interest in psychology.
    II. Bipasha is reading a book written by the person sitting opposite her.
    III. Champi, sitting between the ladies who have interest in mathematics and chemistry, is reading a book on biology.
    IV. Dola, sitting opposite the lady who has interest in biology, is reading a book on geology.
    V. The lady who has interest in mathematics is sitting opposite the lady who has interest in psychology.
    VI. Geeta, sitting next to the lady who has interest in geology, is reading a book on chemistry.
    VII. Farah, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is sitting next to the lady who has interest in astronomy.
    Q.93 
    Who is sitting opposite Champi?
    a   Aishwarya
     Bipasha
     Geeta
     Dola
    Solution:

    By the table above, Bipasha is sitting opposite to Champi.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six ladies are travelling together in a train. They are sitting in one block with two rows facing each other, with three ladies in each row. Each of them has written a book in the subject of her interest, and everyone is reading a book written by one of the other ladies in the group. No two ladies are reading a book written by the same lady. It is also known that:
    I. Aishwarya, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is reading the book on mathematics. She does not have interest in psychology.
    II. Bipasha is reading a book written by the person sitting opposite her.
    III. Champi, sitting between the ladies who have interest in mathematics and chemistry, is reading a book on biology.
    IV. Dola, sitting opposite the lady who has interest in biology, is reading a book on geology.
    V. The lady who has interest in mathematics is sitting opposite the lady who has interest in psychology.
    VI. Geeta, sitting next to the lady who has interest in geology, is reading a book on chemistry.
    VII. Farah, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is sitting next to the lady who has interest in astronomy.
    Q.94 
    Which book is Ms. Farah reading?
    a   Psychology
     Chemistry
     Astronomy
     Biology
    Solution:

    By the table above, Ms. Farah is reading the book on Psychology.
    Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six ladies are travelling together in a train. They are sitting in one block with two rows facing each other, with three ladies in each row. Each of them has written a book in the subject of her interest, and everyone is reading a book written by one of the other ladies in the group. No two ladies are reading a book written by the same lady. It is also known that:
    I. Aishwarya, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is reading the book on mathematics. She does not have interest in psychology.
    II. Bipasha is reading a book written by the person sitting opposite her.
    III. Champi, sitting between the ladies who have interest in mathematics and chemistry, is reading a book on biology.
    IV. Dola, sitting opposite the lady who has interest in biology, is reading a book on geology.
    V. The lady who has interest in mathematics is sitting opposite the lady who has interest in psychology.
    VI. Geeta, sitting next to the lady who has interest in geology, is reading a book on chemistry.
    VII. Farah, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is sitting next to the lady who has interest in astronomy.
    Q.95 
    Aishwarya is
    a   an astronomer
     a geologist
     a biologist
     a psychologist
    Solution:

    By the table above, Aishwarya is a biologist.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six ladies are travelling together in a train. They are sitting in one block with two rows facing each other, with three ladies in each row. Each of them has written a book in the subject of her interest, and everyone is reading a book written by one of the other ladies in the group. No two ladies are reading a book written by the same lady. It is also known that:
    I. Aishwarya, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is reading the book on mathematics. She does not have interest in psychology.
    II. Bipasha is reading a book written by the person sitting opposite her.
    III. Champi, sitting between the ladies who have interest in mathematics and chemistry, is reading a book on biology.
    IV. Dola, sitting opposite the lady who has interest in biology, is reading a book on geology.
    V. The lady who has interest in mathematics is sitting opposite the lady who has interest in psychology.
    VI. Geeta, sitting next to the lady who has interest in geology, is reading a book on chemistry.
    VII. Farah, who is sitting at a corner seat of a row, is sitting next to the lady who has interest in astronomy.
    Q.96 
    Which of the following pairs of ladies are not sitting opposite each other?
    a   Aishwarya -Dola
     Bipasha - Champi
     Geeta - Ms. Farah
     None of these
    Solution:

    By the table above, each of the given pair of ladies are sitting opposite to each other.
    Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four runners - Anurag, Brijesh, Chakri and Deepak - participated in a tournament, which comprises two races. No two of them secured the same position in either of the races. Only one athlete, out of the four, secured the same position place in both the races. Anurag did not secure last position in either of the races. Chakri beat Deepak in both the races. Brijesh secured first position in at least one of the two races. Anurag secured third position in at least one of the two races. Deepak secured the second position in one of the races and Chakri did the same in the other race.
    Q.97 
    The winner of a race was awarded 4 points, the runner-up was awarded 3 points, the third position holder was awarded 2 points and the last position holder was awarded 1 point. If the winner of the event was the athlete whose aggregate points in the two races was the maximum, then who won the tournament?
    a   Anurag
     Brijesh
     Chakri
     Deepak
    Solution:
    Since Chakri always beat Deepak and Deepak secured the second position in one of the races, Chakri finished first and Deepak finished second in one of the races. Brijesh, therefore, won the race in which Chakri secure the second position. Since only one runner finished at the same position in both the races, Anurag must have finished at the same position in both the races as he did not secure the last position in either of the races.

    The following are the standing of the runners in the two races:
    Race A: Brijesh, Chakri, Anurag, Deepak.
    Race B: Chakri, Deepak, Anurag, Brijesh.
    If the winner of the event was the athlete whose aggregate points in the two races was the maximum, then Chakri won the tournament.
    Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four runners - Anurag, Brijesh, Chakri and Deepak - participated in a tournament, which comprises two races. No two of them secured the same position in either of the races. Only one athlete, out of the four, secured the same position place in both the races. Anurag did not secure last position in either of the races. Chakri beat Deepak in both the races. Brijesh secured first position in at least one of the two races. Anurag secured third position in at least one of the two races. Deepak secured the second position in one of the races and Chakri did the same in the other race.
    Q.98 
    The athlete(s) who secured a better position in the second race compared to that in the first race was/were
    a   Anurag
     Both Chakri and Deepak
     Brijesh
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Since Chakri always beat Deepak and Deepak secured the second position in one of the races, Chakri finished first and Deepak finished second in one of the races. Brijesh, therefore, won the race in which Chakri secure the second position. Since only one runner finished at the same position in both the races, Anurag must have finished at the same position in both the races as he did not secure the last position in either of the races.

    The following are the standing of the runners in the two races:
    Race A: Brijesh, Chakri, Anurag, Deepak.
    Race B: Chakri, Deepak, Anurag, Brijesh.
    We cannot find which race was first and which last. Hence answer to the question cannot be determined.
    Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four runners - Anurag, Brijesh, Chakri and Deepak - participated in a tournament, which comprises two races. No two of them secured the same position in either of the races. Only one athlete, out of the four, secured the same position place in both the races. Anurag did not secure last position in either of the races. Chakri beat Deepak in both the races. Brijesh secured first position in at least one of the two races. Anurag secured third position in at least one of the two races. Deepak secured the second position in one of the races and Chakri did the same in the other race.
    Q.99 
    For whom was the absolute difference between the positions secured in the two races the maximum?
    a   Anurag
     Brijesh
     Chakri
     Deepak
    Solution:
    Since Chakri always beat Deepak and Deepak secured the second position in one of the races, Chakri finished first and Deepak finished second in one of the races. Brijesh, therefore, won the race in which Chakri secure the second position. Since only one runner finished at the same position in both the races, Anurag must have finished at the same position in both the races as he did not secure the last position in either of the races.

    The following are the standing of the runners in the two races:
    Race A: Brijesh, Chakri, Anurag, Deepak.
    Race B: Chakri, Deepak, Anurag, Brijesh.
    The absolute difference between the positions secured in the two races was maximum for Brijesh.
    Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four runners - Anurag, Brijesh, Chakri and Deepak - participated in a tournament, which comprises two races. No two of them secured the same position in either of the races. Only one athlete, out of the four, secured the same position place in both the races. Anurag did not secure last position in either of the races. Chakri beat Deepak in both the races. Brijesh secured first position in at least one of the two races. Anurag secured third position in at least one of the two races. Deepak secured the second position in one of the races and Chakri did the same in the other race.
    Q.100 
    Who secured the same position in both the races?
    a   Brijesh
     Anurag
     Chakri
     Deepak
    Solution:
    Since Chakri always beat Deepak and Deepak secured the second position in one of the races, Chakri finished first and Deepak finished second in one of the races. Brijesh, therefore, won the race in which Chakri secure the second position. Since only one runner finished at the same position in both the races, Anurag must have finished at the same position in both the races as he did not secure the last position in either of the races.

    The following are the standing of the runners in the two races:
    Race A: Brijesh, Chakri, Anurag, Deepak.
    Race B: Chakri, Deepak, Anurag, Brijesh.
    Anurag secured the same position in both the races.
    Correct Answer : b

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